Have or can biblical writings ever be proven to be the undistorted "Word of God"?

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I understand you, but I think you miss my point. I’m not arguing that you should be Catholic. That’s something totally outside my sphere of influence or sphere of concer. Clearly you’re not in love with the spouse, so why would I insist that you marry her?
In terms of your analogy, I would say that I am “married to her” but that I roll my eyes whe she pretends to be something she is not. I don’t plan to file for divorce on account of megolomania.

My purpose in jumping into this thread, and others, is to find out if I’m missing some argument or facts or whether the matter is, as I had supposed, merely a matter of faith (or, as you suggest, subjective choice).
 
…I would say that I am “married to her” but that I roll my eyes whe she pretends to be something she is not…
It sounds like you are among those who claim to be Catholic while simultaneously denying Catholic dogma. That’s like taking an oath of office while denying the same oath. It’s absurd.

Those who deny Catholic dogma place themselves outside the Church, whether they realize it or not.

If I still obstinately denied or doubted Catholic dogma, I’d have to have the integrity to try another religion or start my own, instead of pretend I was still in communion with the Catholic Church. Whether a divorce is de jure or de facto, it is still a divorce.
 
It sounds like you are among those who claim to be Catholic while simultaneously denying Catholic dogma.
That rather depends on what it means to be Catholic.
If i obstinately denied or doubted Catholic dogma, I’d have to have the integrity to try another religion or start my own instead of pretend I was still in communion with the Catholic Church.
Or mabe I’ll just wait for the dogma to be corrected. In the mean time, I’ll just keep rolling my eyes at claims of inerrancy.
 
I think that it is difficult to prove that the Bible is the “undistorted Word of God” in an empirical sense. We do not have the original texts, although we do have a reliable textual tradition. We have many sources in various languages, from codexes to papyrus fragments, in Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, Syriac, etc. A book like F.F. Bruce’s “The New Testament Documents: Are They Reliable?” examines this textual evidence. As I recall, there is more evidence for the reliability of the Bible than most other ancient books. Now that doesn’t rise to the level of “undistorted”, but it is the best that textual criticism can provide.

If textual evidence cannot prove the Bible is inerrant or undistorted, then what does? Why do Catholics and other Christians believe the Bible to be the Word of God? I would suggest that they do so because there is first the textual evidence. More than that, there is the evidence of belief itself. “I believe so that I may understand” as St. Anselm of Canterbury said. If I reject the Bible a priori as being merely a fallible human book, how can I expect to understand it as the Word of God? I will see it as a human book, full of errors, no different from other so-called holy books because I have ruled out the possibility of believing that it could be the Word of God.

To me the best words about what the Word of God is are in the 5th chapter of John’s Gospel. To those who were upset with him for healing of the sabbath and making himself equal to God, Jesus says “You diligently study the scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life. These are the scriptures that testify about me. Yet you refuse to come to me to have life” (John 5:39-40).

It’s good to study the scriptures, but it’s not enough. They testify about Jesus, even better. Yet we must come to Jesus to have the eternal life the scriptures promise. That is why the Catholic Church is not a “people of the Bible” but of the Word of God made flesh in Jesus Christ. It is Christ who established the Church and the Church gave us the Bible. Both the Church and the Bible come from Jesus Christ. He is the guarentee of the inerrancy of the scriptures and the teaching of the Church through the Holy Spirit. He is the proof.
 
I think that it is difficult to prove that the Bible is the “undistorted Word of God” in an empirical sense. We do not have the original texts, although we do have a reliable textual tradition. We have many sources in various languages, from codexes to papyrus fragments, in Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, Syriac, etc. A book like F.F. Bruce’s “The New Testament Documents: Are They Reliable?” examines this textual evidence. As I recall, there is more evidence for the reliability of the Bible than most other ancient books. Now that doesn’t rise to the level of “undistorted”, but it is the best that textual criticism can provide.
This is not really my concern. I’m willing to believe that the Bible is substantially true to its original form. (And Anon5216 explicitly ruled out this issue for the discussion here.)
More than that, there is the evidence of belief itself. “I believe so that I may understand” as St. Anselm of Canterbury said. If I reject the Bible a priori as being merely a fallible human book, how can I expect to understand it as the Word of God? I will see it as a human book, full of errors, no different from other so-called holy books because I have ruled out the possibility of believing that it could be the Word of God.
This is an all-or-nothing claim that really doesn’t hold up. First of all, the Bible is special because it is a (perhaps merely human) book about God. The subject alone distinguishes it.
To me the best words about what the Word of God is are in the 5th chapter of John’s Gospel. To those who were upset with him for healing of the sabbath and making himself equal to God, Jesus says “You diligently study the scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life. These are the scriptures that testify about me. Yet you refuse to come to me to have life” (John 5:39-40).
That is certainly a good point but I would suggest the criticism is more applicable to the ineerrant faction. In this case, Jesus was criticizing those who had their nose in the book and weren’t looking up to see God staring them in the face.
Both the Church and the Bible come from Jesus Christ. He is the guarentee of the inerrancy of the scriptures and the teaching of the Church through the Holy Spirit. He is the proof.
This doesn’t follow of necessity. Jesus didn’t write the Bible. And the Holy Spirit doesn’t leave footprints to let us know where it’s been active.
 
This may be your opinion, but I assure you it is certainly contrary to Catholic doctrine. Non-Catholics can easily verify what the church has always taught regarding the inerrancy of Scripture. For instance…

**St. Justin Martyr, ***Dialogue with Trypho the Jew, *(ca AD 155):
From St. Irenaeus’ *Against Heresies *(ca. AD 180/199):
St. Augustine of Hippo, *Letter to Faustus, *AD 400, & *Letter to St. Jerome, *AD 405:
It certainly does no good to speak of the authority or inerrancy of Scripture if such authority is not a commonly agreed upon premise among participants in the discussion.

However, it likewise does no good to contradict or attempt to downplay what the Church has clearly taught on the matter since the earliest Church fathers.
Having spent a fair amount of time in study at a Catholic College and being taught by Catholic theologians, I can only express that what I was reading and what I was taught was that in no way do Catholics believe in literalism for much of the bible. For instance, Genesis is not considered an accurate account of how the earth came to be and how it came to inhabited. Noah’s ark is not thought to be an accurate depiction of a real event in history. There are many many more. There is a difference between literal and literalism. Catholics have always accepted that many stories in the bible are not historical but metaphorical and allegorical. They are designed as all good oral stories to conveny truths, and a colorful story helps to make such truths memorable. Hopefully you see the difference. Fundamentalism speaks to a theory that the stories in the bible are all accurate depictions of actual events, and are to be accepted as such. This of course flies in the face in scientific discoveries as well as many archaeological ones.
 
First Man, First woman, Adam and Eve are very important in the Catholic Faith.
God made Man
Man sinned.
God made a covenant with Adam.
To understand Mary as the ‘new Eve’ one must recognize the first Eve.
Even more important is the recognition of Jesus as the ‘new Adam’ who erases the sin brought by the first Adam.
1 Cor 15:22, 45
Jude 1, 14

see CCC 396-412 also.
God always keeps His Word.

-Jesus spoke of Noah and God made a covenant with Noah, not
things one should just dismiss as “good moral stories”
Lk 17-26-27 (Mt 24:37)

St. Paul and St.Peter spoke of that which was taught to them:
Heb 11:7
1Pt. 3:20 & 2Pt 2:5

There are other covenants as well-with Abraham and David.The covenant God made with Jesus has given us the Holy Eucharist.

How could I believe one or two, but not all the covenants?(rhetorical)
 
Having spent a fair amount of time in study at a Catholic College and being taught by Catholic theologians, I can only express that what I was reading and what I was taught was that in no way do Catholics believe in literalism for much of the bible. For instance, Genesis is not considered an accurate account of how the earth came to be and how it came to inhabited. Noah’s ark is not thought to be an accurate depiction of a real event in history. There are many many more. There is a difference between literal and literalism. Catholics have always accepted that many stories in the bible are not historical but metaphorical and allegorical. They are designed as all good oral stories to conveny truths, and a colorful story helps to make such truths memorable. Hopefully you see the difference. Fundamentalism speaks to a theory that the stories in the bible are all accurate depictions of actual events, and are to be accepted as such. This of course flies in the face in scientific discoveries as well as many archaeological ones.
Is there anything in the catechism or canon law that clears this up in terms of fundamentalism versus metaphorical & allegorical interpretations? My understanding is that there is no dogmatic statement one way or the other. And since my NAB suggests that certain stories may be allegorical, it suggests that allegorical interpretations are OK but really does not negate a literal interpretation explicitly. My thinking is that the citations of St Justin, St Iraneaus, & St Augustine are opinions of learned saints but not dogma required by Catholics to believe.
 
Is there anything in the catechism or canon law that clears this up in terms of fundamentalism versus metaphorical & allegorical interpretations? My understanding is that there is no dogmatic statement one way or the other. And since my NAB suggests that certain stories may be allegorical, it suggests that allegorical interpretations are OK but really does not negate a literal interpretation explicitly.
Please remember that the catechism and canon law and Church tradition are completely irrelevant to the question of “are the biblical writings the undistorted Word of God?”.

If these collected writings are not “the undistorted Word of God”, then all teachings/theologies/dogmas/etc. based on that assumption are in error.

Until the original question is settled and proven, all those teachings/theologies/dogmas/etc. can only be considered fallible human speculation - not inerrant or infallible truth.
 
Please remember that the catechism and canon law and Church tradition are completely irrelevant to the question of “are the biblical writings the undistorted Word of God?”.

If these collected writings are not “the undistorted Word of God”, then all teachings/theologies/dogmas/etc. based on that assumption are in error.

Until the original question is settled and proven, all those teachings/theologies/dogmas/etc. can only be considered fallible human speculation - not inerrant or infallible truth.
Your premise is based on 100% literalism. It suggests that allegories and metaphors are bogus, which would say that Jesus’ parables were bogus as well. It would suggest that sacred stories have no merit for proper education in spiritual matters. In my opinion, your 100% undistorted premise says that God expects humans to relay stories of importance in ways that are not memorable. The allegorical & metaphorical story is designed to drive home the point of the story, not the inconsequential details of 100% factual account. The point of the story is 100% inerrant. Jesus used parables. Sacred authors used stories to convey messages in a background of historical context. To my mind, the miracles are the prizes that let the faithful understand that they are getting the point and it is true. The Catholic Church’s rulings are important if the key is that Jesus’ words mean something when He founded the RCC through St.Peter.

Your idea of “undistorted Word of God” assumes that when God conveys a spiritual message to the heart of a sacred author, He does not allow the author to express that message in the way he normally conveys messages in the context of his cultural upbringing. I disagree with that premise entirely.
 
Your premise is based on 100% literalism.
WRONG! My premise is based on nothing of the sort.

It suggests that allegories and metaphors are bogus, which would say that Jesus’ parables were bogus as well. It would suggest that sacred stories have no merit for proper education in spiritual matters. In my opinion, your 100% undistorted premise says that God expects humans to relay stories of importance in ways that are not memorable.
Your statement assumes God is not allowed to include parables, metaphors, allegories, etc. and must be a 100% literalist.
My premise assumes no such thing.

The allegorical & metaphorical story is designed to drive home the point of the story, not the inconsequential details of 100% factual account. The point of the story is 100% inerrant. Jesus used parables. Sacred authors used stories to convey messages in a background of historical context.
However, if you are correct, and all allegories, metaphors, parables, etc. must be distortions of God’s Word, then my premise is proven. But I don’t see it so simplistically.

To my mind, the miracles are the prizes that let the faithful understand that they are getting the point and it is true.
Miracles are not unique to biblical writings and certainly not unique to ancient Jewish (or modern Catholic) culture. Therefore miracles alone do not prove anything other than that a particular miracle has happened. You can interpret their meaning and make conjectures of their significance and attach all sorts of conclusions, but these conclusions are your creations alone.

The Catholic Church’s rulings are important if the key is that Jesus’ words mean something when He founded the RCC through St.Peter.
Since obviously I’m not just assuming the Bible is inerrant, then there can be no automatic assumption of Jesus founding the RCC and the RCC being infallible.

Your idea of “undistorted Word of God” assumes that when God conveys a spiritual message to the heart of a sacred author, He does not allow the author to express that message in the way he normally conveys messages in the context of his cultural upbringing. I disagree with that premise entirely.
If the author translates anything into their own imperfect language or cultural habits they have by that very fact “distorted” the Word of God and introduced error. We now have the “word of man” (inspired by the “Word of God” perhaps), but nothing inerrant. (Oh, you have every right to disagree with my premise of course).
And again, I’m not saying that my premise invalidates any spiritual usefulness of biblical writings.

It does, however, invalidate this obsessing of the “letter” of infallible and/or inerrant teachings the RCC is so attached to.

btw, aren’t there biblical anecdotes of Jesus chastising some prior group of religious leaders who had a very similar neurotic obsession? 😉
 
Your premise is based on 100% literalism.
WRONG! My premise is based on nothing of the sort.

If the author translates anything into their own imperfect language or cultural habits they have by that very fact “distorted” the Word of God and introduced error. We now have the “word of man” (inspired by the “Word of God” perhaps), but nothing inerrant.

Aren’t these two statements a contradiction?

That is, “introduced error” = “nothing inerrant” ???
 
Your premise is based on 100% literalism.
WRONG! My premise is based on nothing of the sort.

If the author translates anything into their own imperfect language or cultural habits they have by that very fact “distorted” the Word of God and introduced error. We now have the “word of man” (inspired by the “Word of God” perhaps), but nothing inerrant.

Aren’t these two statements a contradiction?
No, read my prior post again.

A biblical passage could potentially be very literalist and very distorted, or be a parable and completely undistorted.
Don’t confuse “distortion” with a “lack of literalism”.
 
No, read my prior post again.

A biblical passage could potentially be very literalist and very distorted, or be a parable and completely undistorted.
Don’t confuse “distortion” with a “lack of literalism”.
OK, I take your point. Now let’s concentrate on the biblical passage that is literalist and very distorted. Could you clarify your meaning in view of the statement:

“If the author translates anything into their own imperfect language or cultural habits they have by that very fact “distorted” the Word of God and introduced error. We now have the “word of man” (inspired by the “Word of God” perhaps), but nothing inerrant.”

It suggests that “Nothing inerrant”, that is something pure of spiritual message, can come from the “distorted” Word of God that introduces error.

It suggests that the author cannot use his imperfect language and cultural habits to express a message from God to his contemporaries in order for the message to be trustworthy.

If I have it right so far, what language must the sacred author use to satisfy a reasonable man’s sense of trust?
 
Your idea of “undistorted Word of God” assumes that when God conveys a spiritual message to the heart of a sacred author, He does not allow the author to express that message in the way he normally conveys messages in the context of his cultural upbringing. I disagree with that premise entirely.
Does anyone (here) want to argue that God dictated the Bible to the authors? (As I noted previously, Orthodox Jews believe that about the Torah and some Protestants seem to believe that about the Bible generally.) If not, then let’s dispense with that red herring.

At the other extreme, we have what I have elsewhere called the “historical view” of the Bible, that it is a book, like any other, in which human authors sought to express their experience and beliefs with inspiriration limited to the phenomenon which they were observing.

In between these two extremes, you have a vague claim of inspiriation by the Holy Spirit which endows these books with a special quality and enables the (also infallible) CC to interptet them (for us) as the true Word of God. That works whether the text is historical, prophetic, parable, or poetic in nature.

Thus it really makes no sense to discuss the inerrancy of the Bible without also discussing the inerrancy of the CC.
 
Does anyone (here) want to argue that God dictated the Bible to the authors? (As I noted previously, Orthodox Jews believe that about the Torah and some Protestants seem to believe that about the Bible generally.) If not, then let’s dispense with that red herring.

At the other extreme, we have what I have elsewhere called the “historical view” of the Bible, that it is a book, like any other, in which human authors sought to express their experience and beliefs with inspiriration limited to the phenomenon which they were observing.

In between these two extremes, you have a vague claim of inspiriation by the Holy Spirit which endows these books with a special quality and enables the (also infallible) CC to interptet them (for us) as the true Word of God. That works whether the text is historical, prophetic, parable, or poetic in nature.

Thus it really makes no sense to discuss the inerrancy of the Bible without also discussing the inerrancy of the CC.
Anon opened up the question Inspired Word of God as dictated to man as messenger who may not relay the information correctly. More importantly, how can one distinguish truth from a sacred author of a religious persuasion from another sacred author of another religious persuasion, if you can’t nail down the apparent contradictions in other factors such as history with what we know to be true.

ItsJustDave argued with his citations from saints that the originals were literally true in all aspects where the intent was to be literal and, not allegorical.

“Inerrancy” is exactly what I think is the crux of the discussion points. To be errant means to wander. To be inerrant means to stay on the path to the target. I believe the Bible to be the Inspired Word of God in that it was a spiritual message, and not a language message, as told by sacred authors who were encumbered by the language & culture & historical background of their day. In the sense of a spiritual message, the message was right on target.
 
“Inerrancy” is exactly what I think is the crux of the discussion points. To be errant means to wander. To be inerrant means to stay on the path to the target. I believe the Bible to be the Inspired Word of God in that it was a spiritual message, and not a language message, as told by sacred authors who were encumbered by the language & culture & historical background of their day. In the sense of a spiritual message, the message was right on target.
I prefer the historical view. I don’t believe that anything is added to the Bible by distinguishing the spiritual from the non-spiritual. I cringe at the argument that the Bible might be factually false but still morally true.

On the other hand, I’m not nearly as concerned with the possibility of errors in the Bible. I have read that there are problems with the chronology of the Jesus birth story with respect to emperors and Judean kings (can’t remember the details). But by and large the Bible has proven to be a pretty good history book, judging by archeological finds.
Anon opened up the question Inspired Word of God as dictated to man as messenger who may not relay the information correctly. More importantly, how can one distinguish truth from a sacred author of a religious persuasion from another sacred author of another religious persuasion, if you can’t nail down the apparent contradictions in other factors such as history with what we know to be true.
I’m not entirely clear what you are saying here. But suppose for a moment that we put aside our holy vestments and don our historian vest. Looking that the Bible from that perspective, what we find are stories told by people who encountered God (as well as poems, geneologies, etc.). If we want to increase our confidence in the Bible, we can compare it to other sources of knowledge, such as, in the case of the NT, Josephus and Titus. If we are confident in the historical accuracy of the Bible then we can conclude that when it says Jesus told such and such a parable, that he told that parable even if not in those exact words.

In terms of the Gospels, John takes the greatest liberties by expressing his own theory of Christ. From a historical view, we can be reasonably certain that John believed in the theory that he described but that doesn’t make his theory true. Similarly, we can view Paul as the first Christian theologean. We can know, from his letters, what he (and by implication others) believed (e.g. that Christ died for our sins) at that early a point in Christian history but that doesn’t make it true.
 
I saw this in “Ask An Apologist” and I think it would be useful for setting the context here:

The Bible is part of sacred Tradition, as it has been handed down in written form and its accuracy guaranteed and canon determined by the authoritative Church that wrote it.
 
Perhaps this can help: The Inerrancy of Scripture and the Second Vatican Council
This is good but a bit limited in scope. It does help explain the terms and concepts under discussion (and argues that it has been essentially consistent). But it offers nothing of argument for the traditional view of the CC.
 
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