J
josie_L
Guest
As head of the Church the pope’s approval was necessary to give ecumenical authority and value to conciliar decrees, this is nothing new, in fact, even heretics recognized and sought out Rome to reverse conciliar decisions (regarding their teachings) decreed at synods. Such doctrinal authority entails infallibility, i.e., having the last say on conciliar decisions and/or requiring the pope’s approbation.This refers to Metropolitans, of which there was usually one per nation.
It adequately describes, even today, how Orthodox synods normally will function, the patriarch does not make decisions on his own authority, and what he does decide is subject to peer review by his brother bishops in the synod.
It is precisely this that accounts for the interesting case in 2005 when the Jerusalem church deposed it’s own Patriarch. The Orthodox church still applies Apostolic Canon 34 as written.
Which is to say in practical terms according to the canons of your church (written and edited by Popes) he has a line item veto over the acts of the fathers in council, and can negate entire sessions or even entire councils on his own authority.
But in fact, according to your church since 1870AD he does not need to call a council to define dogma, he can define things all by himself, and futures councils are stuck with that fait acompli.
He never defines things all by himself, i.e., even when popes declared the doctrine of the Immaculate conception and the Assumption they consulted the episcopate and/or were backed up by the episcopate (he is not working in a vacuum).Much earlier councils can have their work negated by a Pope simply because he codifies the canons, and can edit what he wants to right out of the code.