Hawking: "Philosophy is Dead"

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OK, I can see that the way I wrote that was confusing, ambiguous. When I say, values are not determined empirically, I mean that we don’t just run lab experiments, or some kind of objective review to see what values perform best. It’s personal, and subjective. It relies on experience, for sure, but not in the sense of “empirical” where we aggregate our measurements and observations and see which ones perform best (whatever that would mean in this context) and adopt that.

We certainly do obtain our values substantially by our personal experience, though. And this is what defeats the possibility of objective determinations. The “grounding” for those values is the sum of our experience and our choices, which we cannot share or copy to some other location. It’s subjective.

Indeed it was. Wasn’t suggesting there was something unfair about her win – fair and square, so far as I can tell. Surreal yes, but unfair or illegitimate, no.

-TS
Right. It’s going to be an interesting campaign. BTW, speaking of ethics, I understand that she takes a strong stand for fiscal responsibility, but her own finances are a mess with owed back taxes and foreclosure on her house?
 
I was asking about the explanation of : “Due to gravity, there is a problem in all the theories.”
I don;t see where gravity comes in at all on the atomic level since the gravitational force is so small and is negligible. Gravity comes in on the macroscopic level where the masses and distances are large, and QM comes in on the atomic level where the masses and distances are small.
To have a set of formulas that can combine Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity requires the subatomic levels to be considered. All the force laws must be reducable from one set of formulas: strong, weak, electromagnetic, gravitational. Gravitational includes macroscopic and the microscopic Quantum theory of gravity.

I tried to find something that would explain it at an introductory level, try this:
jupiterscientific.org/sciinfo/gravity.html
 
We certainly do obtain our values substantially by our personal experience, though. And this is what defeats the possibility of objective determinations. The “grounding” for those values is the sum of our experience and our choices, which we cannot share or copy to some other location. It’s subjective.

-TS
O.K. Touch, in the absence of objective determinations or standards, please explain to me how one can evaluate your values vis-a-vis Hitler’s or Stalin’s values. Stalin too sincerely and ruthlessly believed he was working for the good of mankind. Again, if you argue for subjectivity, how can you condemn Stalin? You say we cannot copy “our” values to some other location. So those K.G.B. guards in the Soviet Union who ran the Gulags believing they were creating heaven on earth by imprisoning enemies of the workers’ revolution cannot be judged negatively in an objective fashion? It was just the sum of their experiences, I assume in your view. You really are on shaky ground.

This is a recipe for moral chaos. If you only accept scientific empiricism as the sole measure of truth, you have no certain ground for morality. You speak of values, but values are an “abstract” concept not available for tests in the lab, but which values can be studied in philosophy, which subject you confidently dismiss as sophistry. Sheese. Philosophy is the arena of abstract thinking: justice, the purpose of life, morality, beauty.

Again, if there are only “subjective” evaluations of human value possible, you have no ground with which to condemn murder, rape, cheating. Nothing, apart from your own personal value system. You condemn chaos yet what you argue for here is a recipe for nothing but moral chaos.
 
O.K. Touch, in the absence of objective determinations or standards, please explain to me how one can evaluate your values vis-a-vis Hitler’s or Stalin’s values. Stalin too sincerely and ruthlessly believed he was working for the good of mankind. Again, if you argue for subjectivity, how can you condemn Stalin?
Why subjectively, of course! Based on my values, my convictions, my desire to see a world develop that secures liberty and individual rights. You are doing a good job here in helping me with my point; this is the poverty of philosophy, and the more severe poverty of theology, insofar as it even farther removed from a shared starting point of scientific information.

But, as problematic as it is, this is the real world. We develop our values and priorities and we pursue them. We can align with “birds of a feather” – others who have similar or compatible values – but our values are personal, subjectively our own. I condemn Stalinism subjectively, because that’s all that’s at my disposal.
You say we cannot copy “our” values to some other location.
What I said was we cannot copy our experiences – these are perfectly personal. Depending on what you mean by “values”, we may well be able to communicate them, transmit them, relocate them.
So those K.G.B. guards in the Soviet Union who ran the Gulags believing they were creating heaven on earth by imprisoning enemies of the workers’ revolution cannot be judged negatively in an objective fashion?
It was just the sum of their experiences, I assume in your view. You really are on shaky ground.
Welcome to the real world. We don’t confer reality on the universe. We adapt to it and understand it is as best we can – it is what it is. And all the more reason to esteem character and virtue – there is no “geiger counter” or cosmic magic eight ball that provides our value judgments like reading a meter. It takes courage, thought, will, subjective commitments. It’s shaky, fer sher. The real world is a hard place for sissies.
This is a recipe for moral chaos.
Huh. Look around! how many different and conflicting moral frameworks could you find, just examining the neighbors in your neighborhood? It is moral chaos, and pointing to the role of will to power as the outworking of philosophy and theology in human interesting isn’t even trivially challenging.
If you only accept scientific empiricism as the sole measure of truth, you have no certain ground for morality.
I don’t accept science as the sole measure of truth, and I understand the concept of “moral certainty” itself to be problematic, and the the belief that one is “morally certain” itself to be an immoral stance. That’s how you get to demonizing homosexuals as part of holy scripture, or flying airplanes into skyscrapers as an act of piety. Moral and ethical deliberation is hard work, subjective, complex, messy. Simplistic thinking appears to encourage tragic outcomes.
You speak of values, but values are an “abstract” concept not available for tests in the lab, but which values can be studied in philosophy, which subject you confidently dismiss as sophistry. Sheese. Philosophy is the arena of abstract thinking: justice, purpose of life, beauty.
Much of philosophy is not at all abstract, but is instead viscerally practical. Deciding whether to lie to an SS officer looking for Jews under your floorboards is not an abstract context for thinking about values, meaning, priorities and truth. We, as subjects, are limited to subjectivity in our value formation, but that doesn’t make it an abstract process. Far from it. It’s the messy business of real life, and decisions and choices day in and day out.
Again, if there are only “subjective” evaluations of human value possible, you have no ground with which to condemn murder, rape, cheating.
Why not? I have my subjective convictions, and these have many different ways to be effective, forceful. I’m not a god, I’m a human. I think with my mind, and act according to my values and priorities. I’m necessarily subjective in my grounds for many of my stances, but I do have those grounds. It’s of little consequence to you what my grounds are if you mess with my kids, and I’ve found out, for example. The subjectivity there won’t save you from anything, nor me, if the roles are reversed.

That’s the real world. That’s how it works, just look around. Philosophy is subjective insofar as it is intuitive, driven by personal values. And so the world must resolve those questions politically, and often with bloodshed. We just aim to choose our values well, and defend them ably, even perhaps shedding blood in doing so.
Nothing, apart from your own personal value system. You condemn chaos yet what you argue for here is a recipe for nothing but moral chaos.
There’s nothing to condemn. It’s just the real world. It is what it is. It would make as much sense to “condemn gravity”, and be angry that it’s ALWAYS TRYING TO HOLD ME DOWN. I’m not arguing for moral chaos any more that I would argue for gravity. It obtains regardless of what I desire or might advocate.

-TS
 
To have a set of formulas that can combine Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity requires the subatomic levels to be considered. All the force laws must be reducable from one set of formulas: strong, weak, electromagnetic, gravitational. Gravitational includes macroscopic and the microscopic Quantum theory of gravity.

I tried to find something that would explain it at an introductory level, try this:
jupiterscientific.org/sciinfo/gravity.html
But why would you need to combine QM with gravity? QM works best on the atomic or subatomic level and gravity is negligible there. GR works best on the celestial level with large planetary masses and on that scale the effects of QM are negligible. So I don;t see where there is any need to combine them.
So far, string theories are the only model that can do that.
String theory may be nice mathematically, but is there any experiment which can either verify or falsify string theory? Does string theory make any predictions which can be experimentally verified? I don’t see where string theory would give us any deeper insights into the nature of space and time or how it explains the equivalence of gravitational and inertial mass. The only reason for ten dimensions is not that some experiment has shown that we live in ten dimensions, it is that in string theory gravitons are contained in a ten dimensioal environment and that perturbative string theories are anomaly free in ten dimensions. Also, where is the experimental evidence for supersymmetry? The only reason that I know of for supersymmetry is because string theory has no fermions and no chirality without supersymmetry. Also supersymmetry is related to Poincare invariance. But I don;t see the empirical data behind this? I thought that in physics, experimental data was supposed to act as some sort of control on the theory being postulated?
 
The idea that everything can be explained is an absurd fantasy, and the fact that anyone might entertain the idea that everything can be explained is indicative of why philosophy is dead.

Science is what drives discovery. It is results based. It needs no justification. Your hypothesis either achieves results and becomes self justifying or it is proven false and becomes just as dead as philosophy and metaphysics.
Ironically it is not philosophers but **physicists **who are seeking a Theory of Everything!
 
To have a set of formulas that can combine Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity requires the subatomic levels to be considered. All the force laws must be reducable from one set of formulas: strong, weak, electromagnetic, gravitational. Gravitational includes macroscopic and the microscopic Quantum theory of gravity.

I tried to find something that would explain it at an introductory level, try this:
jupiterscientific.org/sciinfo/gravity.html
BTW, thanks for the link, although it does not explain why you would need QG, since, as you know, the gravitational force is so small compared to the other forces at this level. For example, the strong force compared to gravitational force between the protons is on the order of 10^42 times greater.
 
BTW, thanks for the link, although it does not explain why you would need QG, since, as you know, the gravitational force is so small compared to the other forces at this level. For example, the strong force compared to gravitational force between the protons is on the order of 10^42 times greater.
It does not matter what the relative strengths are, the reason is to have one theory for Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity; it means Quantum Mechanics at low potentials (weak gravity) and large (strong gravity) and also where both effects are significant. They postulate a graviton wave-particle so that this can be used with quantum field theory.

This might be too complex, but try this on the Planck Scale:
csep10.phys.utk.edu/astr162/lect/cosmology/planck.html
 
:yawn:Same old straw-man.:yawn::sleep:
How the hell can that be a strawman? I think the idea that anyone can know everything is an aburd fantasy. Who exactly am I misrepresenting in saying that, you linguistically challenged jobbernowl?
 
So you believe some things to be beyond our understanding.
Correct.
Care to elaborate on what those things would be; or are we talking empty speculation here?
We’re talking speculation, obviously.
I have yet to see a thing I could not see as either understandable now; or possibly understandable in the future; nor have I any reason to believe that there are things that are essentially unexplainable.
Don’t you remember that little conversation we had about the strong nuclear force that left you utterly baffled?

Nothing to be ashamed of. If you did fully understand it, you’d be the first, and you’d also have to be a mutant with superhuman cognative abilities.
 
Ah, but to attempt to justify naive materialism and atheism would require the use of philosophy in the justification, which Buddha Hawking says we cannot discuss.

“Master, what is the justification for the epistemology of Logical Positivism?”
“Philosophy is dead.”
“Master, what is your justification for this claim?”
“Mu.”

Obviously to one who does not understand philosophy, who has probably never even read a question by Aquinas, who probably thinks that Ockham’s Razon was invented by William of Ockham… obviously to that person philosophy is dead, inasmuch as it was never alive in him in the first place.
“What is the justification for saying philosophy is dead?”

“It is the sole provenance of pedantic pontificating windbags on a fast track career pathway into the pizza delivery industry.”

Incidentally, your post reeks of straw. Ockam’s razor is not a principle of the scientific method.
 

String theory may be nice mathematically, but is there any experiment which can either verify or falsify string theory? Does string theory make any predictions which can be experimentally verified? I don’t see where string theory would give us any deeper insights into the nature of space and time or how it explains the equivalence of gravitational and inertial mass. The only reason for ten dimensions is not that some experiment has shown that we live in ten dimensions, it is that in string theory gravitons are contained in a ten dimensioal environment and that perturbative string theories are anomaly free in ten dimensions. Also, where is the experimental evidence for supersymmetry? The only reason that I know of for supersymmetry is because string theory has no fermions and no chirality without supersymmetry. Also supersymmetry is related to Poincare invariance. But I don;t see the empirical data behind this? I thought that in physics, experimental data was supposed to act as some sort of control on the theory being postulated?
Theoretical physicists sometimes attempt to develop formulas without any experimental data. In this situation there are observations in the weak and strong gravity, but not yet at Plancks size (orders smaller that a proton). A theory to reconcile Quantum Mechanics and General Relativity (a.k.a. Quantum Gravity) would allow expression of the phenomenon that occur in space-time at that scale. No observations are available yet, but getting closer, for example, with WMAP probe.

The neutralino has not been found, so there is not evidence for supersymmetry yet. Superstring theory has some predictions and there are some promising (as of 2009)observations of gold plasma that behaves more like a liquid, and supercooled Lithium that also has liquid properties.
 
Superstring theory has some predictions …
This is interesting. What are the predictions of superstring theory ? How many of these predictions have been verified? If you are speaking of supersymmetry, you can have supersymmetry without string theory.
 
Hmmm. If you had to point to the progress that philosophy has made in the last 100 years, what would you point to? What are the achievements you would stand up against the achievements of physics in the same time frame?
What do you mean by “progress”? I’m not trying to do some rhetorical roundabout but if you’re looking for “progress” then some definition should be given. The philosophy people do today is very unlike the philosophy done 100 years ago but this is such an obvious point that I don’t think this is what you meant by “progress”. If anything, philosophy is not stagnant.

It’s actually kind of funny that you chose the last 100 years to be your timeline because in that time one of the most, if not the most significant contribution of philosophy to the ‘real world’ occurred, the Russian Revolution and the founding of the Soviet Union. Marx was a philosopher, good or bad, and if he never existed or if he never put his ideas down on paper then the world would look very different.
Yes, but for better or worse, these are, were, and remain rhetorical victories. That’s all it takes to be effective in terms of realpolitik I grant, but that’s just the problem: philosophy didn’t answer anything; it was the podium political appeals were launched from, some more effective, some less. But the “defeated” Marxist recognizes his “philosophical defeat” no more than a young earth creationist recognizes his; the political winds may have blown against him, but philosophy is the cure for any and all evidence (for non-scientific philosophies/theologies).
But I have politics, and a bloody, painful commitment to political strife and struggle to thank for what blessings I enjoy. No one looked and agreed that yes, Jeffersonian libertarianism was indeed the objective winner in the philosophy wars and assented to its reign over their own convictions. This routinely happens in science (see Hawking’s capitulation to Susskind in a famous dispute over black holes and white holes, for example).
Would it be fair to say that you’re saying that these philosophers just ‘piggy-backed’ on the currents of non-philosophical movements?
But there would be no Marxist politics without Marx and there would be no liberal democratic movements without Locke, Rosseau etc. Would you not say that there is a difference in political strife between politics which have a philosophical background (Marxism vs Democratic Liberalism) as opposed to those which don’t (lets say the War of the Roses, a good deal of dynastic conflicts seem to take that form)?

Philosophers do in fact change their mind in light of other philosopher’s writings. Are you trying to say they don’t? When Kant, previously a disciple of Wolf and Leibniz, read Hume and “woke up from his dogmatic slumber”, was he just playing politics?
Philosophy outside of science is perfectly nihilistic, or perfectly post-modern, if you prefer – there is no standard, and Aquinas has nothing over Ken Ham, unfortunately, because non-scientific philosophy as an enterprise disavows any objective epistemology or standard for evaluation. It’s just politics, ultimately, and who can convince or persuade who, once science is factored out.
Now this is interesting, philosophy needs as its basis the objective grounding that science provides. How do you prove this? (I’m not trying to do some “Aha! You’re using philosophy” type thing by the way) You treat “perfect nihilism” and “perfect post-modernism” as if they are synonymous with “false” or “worthless”. Why is that?

To be honest this position sounds similar to those that say that the Bible is to be used as the objective grounding for all knowledge lest one slip into nihilism.
 
What do you mean by “progress”? I’m not trying to do some rhetorical roundabout but if you’re looking for “progress” then some definition should be given. The philosophy people do today is very unlike the philosophy done 100 years ago but this is such an obvious point that I don’t think this is what you meant by “progress”. If anything, philosophy is not stagnant.
‘Stagnant’ is fine as a term to use, I guess. What would you point to as evidence of philosophy’s “non-stagnation”?

You are correct in your suspicion, though. My understanding is that while “philosophy is very different now than 100 years ago” is not a controversial statement (for me, anyway), that just serves to condemn philosophy when measured against, say, physics. It may be “internally dynamic” in some sense, but it doesn’t produce anything that competes with science in what I’m calling progress – output that is demonstrable in its performance, cumulative and integrated. That means “ideas that work, that build on each other, and cohere across disciplines”.

The discovery of DNA and genetics model for biology isn’t just performative in isolation, for example, it is “built on” our knowledge of chemistry and underlying physics.
It’s actually kind of funny that you chose the last 100 years to be your timeline because in that time one of the most, if not the most significant contribution of philosophy to the ‘real world’ occurred, the Russian Revolution and the founding of the Soviet Union. Marx was a philosopher, good or bad, and if he never existed or if he never put his ideas down on paper then the world would look very different.
My running contention here, if you read this thread, though, is just that – philosophy doesn’t produce knowledge, but remains just the playing field for rhetorical and political conflicts and developments. Marx certainly was an influential thinker, but the poverty of philosophy, and its step-child theology, is that it languishes in a political swamp, as proposition grounded of subjective valuations.

(here, as elsewhere in this thead, I’m using “philosophy” as “non-scientific philosophy”… science is philosophy, strictly speaking, but stands apart from the rest of it due to its epistemology and method.)
Would it be fair to say that you’re saying that these philosophers just ‘piggy-backed’ on the currents of non-philosophical movements?
No, I’d say it was quite the reverse – these social dynamics are the outworkings of philosophy/theology. Marx is a good example. Lenin was philosophically driven – an ideologue – in his revolutionary and statist efforts to build a Soviet society. Stalin’s was a variation on the theme, infusing traditional Russian religious sentiments in styling himself as a kind of living god, but between them, what happened proceeded from the force and implications of their ideas. A lot of that is traceable to a distinct philosophy (derived from Marx), but even in cases where you have a despot who just seeks personal power and wealth, well, that’s a philosophy too, just a different flavor.

The key realization is this though: what would show that Marx was “right” or had knowledge? Neither the rise nor fall of his ideas in the 20th century demonstrate such. It is just will to power, no more than Catholic theocracy or Jeffersonian libertarianism.
But there would be no Marxist politics without Marx and there would be no liberal democratic movements without Locke, Rosseau etc. Would you not say that there is a difference in political strife between politics which have a philosophical background (Marxism vs Democratic Liberalism) as opposed to those which don’t (lets say the War of the Roses, a good deal of dynastic conflicts seem to take that form)?
No, none that I can see. “Merchant wars” are “less ideological” in terms of core values than say the class overthrow thesis of Marxism, but this is still philosophy in action: my interests are paramount, and best served by deploying violence against those who threaten my (merchant) interests…

-TS
 
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GLantern:
Philosophers do in fact change their mind in light of other philosopher’s writings. Are you trying to say they don’t?
No, certainly not. I’m saying it doesn’t meaning anything apart from persuasion when they do. When Einstein assented to atomism, it didn’t change anything for the theories in question – they performed as they performed, no matter what Einstein thought. But at least in the case of science, the practitioners have an objective point of reference with which to align their understandings. They are (putatively) corrigible to empirical performance, and new objective evidence. Kant was not. Or, more precisely, to the extent he was (I can think of a couple examples of this, as it happens), he is a “scientific philosopher”, not your garden variety philosopher.
When Kant, previously a disciple of Wolf and Leibniz, read Hume and “woke up from his dogmatic slumber”, was he just playing politics?
No, and my use of that word isn’t meant to suggest they are cynical. I don’t suppose they are/were, as a rule (while some surely were, but that’s beside my point). By political, I mean that conflicts and disputes are NOT resolved, or resolvable in some data-driven, objective way. Conflicts are only resolved through persuasion, volition, coercion, violence.

Kant doesn’t have any objective context for saying his persuasion was “progress” beyond “I’m persuaded”. He may have “regressed” for all he and we know. And we don’t know, can’t know, because “knowing” like that is not a meaningful concept in (non-scientific) philosophy.
Now this is interesting, philosophy needs as its basis the objective grounding that science provides. How do you prove this? (I’m not trying to do some “Aha! You’re using philosophy” type thing by the way)
Science has no objective grounding in the sense of ultimate justification. It is a research program, a metaphysical gamble. Pure philosophy insofar as that goes. It’s only valuable to those who subjectively value performance and liability to real-world experience. If you don’t think evidence matters, as a value stance, then science isn’t gonna do it for you. Science only obtains in minds that philosophically value empirical performance, predictive power, and liability to falsification. It’s a juggernaut of progress and discovery the likes of which the world has never seen if you do, value those things, but if you don’t, science may just as well be astrology or theology.
You treat “perfect nihilism” and “perfect post-modernism” as if they are synonymous with “false” or “worthless”. Why is that?
I don’t. “False” is at least meaningful, a concept that says something concrete about the world. Theology and philosophy aren’t even ‘false’ in any non-subjective sense. Philosophy is “not even wrong”. Science can be false, and is the stronger for it. What is “wrong theology”? It’s whatever you subjectively disagree with, of course!

Philosophy, as impoverished as it is that way, is not “worthless”. It’s necessary, crucial for human society, nevertheless. Philosophy is necessary to get to science, as I discussed a bit above. Maybe one way to appreciate philosophy’s worth as well is to understand that out of the chaotic epistemic nihilism of traditional philosophy comes something like science. Even if you don’t buy that as a value prop, philosophy is valuable, necessary, just because it’s the way humans work out their individual and social values.
To be honest this position sounds similar to those that say that the Bible is to be used as the objective grounding for all knowledge lest one slip into nihilism.
That would be a different kind of nihilism. In the “Bible or nothing” case, the fear was about (the more common sense of) ‘nihilism’ where all meaning and values were thus destroyed. Philosophy, per my thesis here, is epistemically nihilist, meaning that it denies knowledge. Every philosophy is just as “true” as any and every other (and the same goes for theology).

That said, though, the Christian who claims that without the Bible we are all bobbing in a sea of subjectivity is right about everyone else. He’s just confused about his own position, which is just the same as everyone else’s. He’s just indulging a conceit, in thinking his subjective appraisal of the Bible as “objectively true” is an objective appraisal. Note above that I’m under no such conceit; the value of scientific knowledge is a subjective value commitment. Unless and until one chooses to value the metaphysical premises of science and its epistemology, it’s not valuable.

-TS
 
This is interesting. What are the predictions of superstring theory ? How many of these predictions have been verified? If you are speaking of supersymmetry, you can have supersymmetry without string theory.
No supersymmerty validation yet, but it is hoped that a superpartner particle (squark, slepton, or SUSY force, SUSY = sypersymmetry) will be found as a result of the Large Hadron Collider experiments. The Standard Model (1967-1974) of fundamental particles is for the strong, weak, and electromagnetic forces and has quarks, leptons, and force particles, but it is known that is does not cover all the observations like dark matter and neutrino oscillations, and the Higgs boson has not been observed, so it is incomplete. (Data is being analyzed now for the Higgs boson.)

Regarding superstrings, it is what I mentioned before about the fluid behavior (gold and lithium). Simple computations in models using string theory with quantum black holes in higher dimensions naturally describe fluid phases with unusual properties experimentally observed. The behavior of the energy density of the fluid with the temperature is one of the indications that it is not behaving as an ideal gas. This is a simple analytical computation with the string models which matches what was inferred from the experiments. You know science is very careful and requires multiple verifications so this will take a few years no doubt.

Here are some interesting links:
cms.web.cern.ch/cms/Physics/Supersymmetry/index.html
www2.slac.stanford.edu/vvc/theory/model.html
 
Simple computations in models using string theory with quantum black holes in higher dimensions naturally describe fluid phases with unusual properties experimentally observed. The behavior of the energy density of the fluid with the temperature is one of the indications that it is not behaving as an ideal gas. This is a simple analytical computation with the string models which matches what was inferred from the experiments.]
Are you speaking here of the fuzzball model? It is interesting, but I don’t see how you can make high precision measurements inside a black hole.
 
Are you speaking here of the fuzzball model? It is interesting, but I don’t see how you can make high precision measurements inside a black hole.
No, the observations are not made in the black holes, rather the model used for the black hole makes some predictions of fluidity. Those fluid characteristics are observed in the Lithium and gold experiments I mentioned, so the string theory then gives hope to the physicists that they may have found a way to describe the observed effects predicted for black holes in the other situations: the quark-gluon plasmas of gold ions that act like fluids, and the Lithium ions at less than one micro Kelvin temperature that have measurable viscosity and entropy. The Li experiments are at Duke, and the Brookhaven National Lab has the gold plasma created in the Relativisitic Heavy Ion Collider.

Lithium:
phy.duke.edu/research/photon/qoptics/highlights/pdf/PhysNewsUp04.html
RHIC:
bnl.gov/rhic/

Superstring postulated fuzzball, there may be a bundle of strings at the center of a black hole:
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