Hebrew: Elohim, is that plural?

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What little I know about Hebrew tells me that the “-im” suffix is a plural form of a word. I am told that there are Old Testament passages that call G-d “Elohim”. Is this an indication that the Inspired authors were giving us a hint about the Trinity?

Also, a number of years ago I was told by a Messianic Jew that the word “echad,” translated as “one” in Mat 22: 36-37, (Deut 6: 4-5, etc.) is defined as a “composite unity.” Anyone know if that is accurate?

I have a coworker who is a member of a church called Iglesia ni Cristo, which denies that Jesus is G-d, thus denying the Trinity, and am trying to develop a biblical argument.

Thank you.
 
What little I know about Hebrew tells me that the “-im” suffix is a plural form of a word. I am told that there are Old Testament passages that call G-d “Elohim”. Is this an indication that the Inspired authors were giving us a hint about the Trinity?

Also, a number of years ago I was told by a Messianic Jew that the word “echad,” translated as “one” in Mat 22: 36-37, (Deut 6: 4-5, etc.) is defined as a “composite unity.” Anyone know if that is accurate?

I have a coworker who is a member of a church called Iglesia ni Cristo, which denies that Jesus is G-d, thus denying the Trinity, and am trying to develop a biblical argument.

Thank you.
In the Hebrew Bible, the word “Elohim” is grammatically singular when referring to G-d, always followed by a singular verb or modified by a singular adjective, and grammatically plural when referring to the pagan gods. The grammatical construction in Hebrew is the intensive form, also known as plural of majesty, since the prefix “El” means “might” or “power.” A similar instance in which the suffix “im” of a word in the Bible is in plural form but always takes the singular verb is “chayim,” which means “life.”

The word “echad” in Hebrew means “one” and is sometimes a compound noun and other times a singular noun. However, when it refers to G-d, it has the same meaning as “yachid,” which is a singular grammatical construction rather than one of a pair or a multitude.
 
G-d bless you, meltzerboy!!! I am so glad I asked before I continued my research.
Thank you so much!
 
You’re welcome, David Eckel. But, by all means, continue your research anyway. I’m not the ultimate authority on these, or any, matters!
I always appreciate your answers. You give us just the facts without entering into an argument. I learn much from you. Thank you - Joe K.
 
If you just want to argue that Jesus is God, you have plenty of other places to turn to than the name “Elohim” (the form of which makes sense in light of the Trinity, but, as has been said, is likely not based in the doctrine of the Trinity and–I think–would be less than convincing by itself). St. Thomas presents a good Biblical argument for the divinity of Jesus, considering numerous objections, in the first several chapters of the fourth book of the Summa Contra Gentiles.
 
The grammatical construction in Hebrew is the intensive form, also known as plural of majesty, since the prefix “El” means “might” or “power.”
I heard the majestic term “we” had never been used in any kind of literature in any language prior to the writing of Genesis 1:26. So it’s unprecedented even for an earthly king or authority to use the term “we”.

I wonder why God used the “we” when he created man and not the rest of his creation?

P.S. I enjoy your posts too and benefit immensely from them! 👍
 
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