R
Robbinson
Guest
Hi HT - I didn’t say (and didn’t mean to imply) that no Catholic referred to, or thought of, the DC books as cannon at any given time. I’m sure there were some, if not many, who did. However, as the Catholic Church puts a tremendous amount of weight on official pronouncements of bishops and popes (and rightly so as part of Church doctrine) and also relys on the writings and teachings of the early Church fathers (including Jerome) to support certain doctrines not clearly in scripture, I do think its relevant that Jerome indicated a viewpoint that these books should not be included and that there was an official counsel where the cannon was listed without the DC books. I acknowledge there was a subsequent “local counsel” which referenced the DC books (or at least some of them).The fact is that there is no reason to believe that Greek speaking (only) peoples rejected the Greek Texts – ever – and therefore the whole of the christian & catholic church. I would rather think the onus is on you to prove that no Catholic used them pre-Nicea – if you can’t prove there were no Catholics (whether or not they are named such), then please be more careful how you phrase things.
By the time of Jerome – it is quite clear that the Pelagian Heresy issue was beginning to draw up “sides”. Anti-Greek sentiments are not surprising – and rash statements — but that does not change the fact that the deuterocanonicals were used by a significant portion of Christians before that time – and that this usage traces all the way back to the time of the Apostles.
There are quotes in the NT that clearly refer to the deutero-canonicals – and although these don’t prove or disprove scripturality – they show the church DID use them. Ergo, texan77 is still correct in general – even if one were to able to do majic with muddy waters…until there is an official cannon for the WHOLE church, one can’t deny their use.
Jerome stated, to my knowledge, that he didn’t believe they were authentic because he couldn’t find Hebrew Originals. But there is nothing said by the church before that time which would require scripture to have been written in Hebrew first.
Jerome, then, is just offering a scholarly opiniion – not a statement of fact.
To be honest – he couldn’t even find the original of several Hebrew texts – there were many variants that he had to “choose” between. Odd how he judges…
I think this area is much “murkier” than Catholics tend to acknowledge (and to be fair, much murkier going the other way then most Protestants care to admit).
In any event as I’ve stated if most, if not all of my posts - I believe there is valuable insight in the DC books - I’ve read them, I just don’t accept them as cannon with the same authority as the other 66 books of the bible.
Blessings,
Brian+