Heilocentrism infallibly condemned

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Della:
It was never taught or believed as an article of the faith. It was just commonly believed in the same way people commonly say the sun rises and sets, to this day, when we know it is the earth turning that causes the effect we call sunrise and sunset. There’s no need to make more of this than it is, for goodness sake!
And your frame of reference for this statement is what?

With all due respect, the documents themselves clearly say differently, which is why the question arises. The Church made clear statements that it was an article of faith and it is on whether the Church believed it to be so that the whole question rests.
 
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JimG:
Even if a pope might think that he had authority to rule on matters of science, he woud, of course, be wrong. And being wrong in such a case would not violate the doctrine of infallibility in matters of faith and morals.

And even if he should consider geocentrism to be a matter of faith and not science, he would again be wrong in that conclusion, since geocentrism has never been a doctrine of the faith, and never will be.
The problem I have as a Catholic is that I have yet to see a thread where there seems to be general agreement on whether any given teaching is ex cathedra or not.

If we have no way to know whether any given teaching is ex cathedra until such time as science or some other outsider shows that it is wrong, then we don’t know.

At the time, the Church said it was a matter of faith and morals. Then we say after the fact that since it was wrong then it must not have been ex cathedra, thus “breaking the spell” or something so the infallibility is null and void.

Now, she holds up Humanae Vitae to be a pronouncement of “natural law” which, as I understand, considers physical sciences to “obey” to the extent that they play a role. Therefore, she seems to be indicating that her knowledge actually is more informed along certain physical lines than the current scientific community.

When the Church teaches there are absolutes in the matters of politics, for example, she is indicating that such absolutes can be predicted in advance and recognized by outward characteristics.

As far as I’m concerned, if I don’t know whether any given teaching by the Church is infallible, then my own mental “immune system” absolutely requires that I maintain a notion of its being tentative. If the Church herself makes pronouncements that are outside her realm of authority, how am I supposed to know that as a mere individual without all the fancy training to know these things? If the pope doesn’t know the limits of her authority on earth then how am I expected to?

Since I cannot be expected to, I find that as a practical matter the doctrine of papal infallibility is of no particular value to me. The doctrine is important for the Church as an institution, for the faith to be carried on in an orderly manner but there is no day-to-day benefit for an individual Catholic to buy into it as far as I can tell.

Alan
 
Wow Alan, you just put into words an idea that’s been bouncing around in my head for a while now.

The Church says that abortion is always wrong, beginning at conception, even though it used to be okay within the first month or so.

The Church has declared that that babies who die without Baptism go to hell, but few people believe that anymore.

Is capital punishment okay? The Church clearly used to say yes, now it kinda, sorta says no.

Even transubstantiation is based on a view of reality that most people would now find irrelevant, if not downright absurd.
 
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Benedictus:
Wow Alan, you just put into words an idea that’s been bouncing around in my head for a while now.

The Church says that abortion is always wrong, beginning at conception, even though it used to be okay within the first month or so.

The Church has declared that that babies who die without Baptism go to hell, but few people believe that anymore.

Is capital punishment okay? The Church clearly used to say yes, now it kinda, sorta says no.

Even transubstantiation is based on a view of reality that most people would now find irrelevant, if not downright absurd.
It sounds like you share the curse of trying to find “absolute” absolutes.

I recognize and accept that absolutes exist, and even that such may exist in faith and morals. Further I am willing to acknowledge that the pope may have a greater insight and certainly the authority to dictate the teachings according to faith and morals, within the scope of the Catholic Church.

Science and philosophy, IMO, are flexible enough actually to handle themselves without having to even challenge faith and morals.

It is in these crossover areas – which seem to be most of the areas that are routinely discussed – that the confusion lies.

Alan

edit>> if the Church asserts something as a matter of faith and morals, and that something later becomes subject to worldly testing, then it becomes less a matter of faith and morals and more of a matter of “worldly” knowledge which does not require faith to believe. By definition those things that we hold as faith items cannot be proven. Therefore I’m inclined to agree that the “earth-centric” view was clearly beyond the reach of faith and morals, although the documentation did make a compelling case the Church thought it was not at the time.

Again, science and philosophy can cross these barriers as long as there is ambiguity whether the Church was holding her findings to be strictly spiritual or whether they were literal descriptions of physical facts. If she has made it clear she is discussing physical facts, then one must decide whether their faith is so strong that they believe despite physical evodence to the contrary. Thomas saw and believed, but Christ said, “blessed are they who have not seen and believed” and not “blessed are they who believe despite seeing credible evidence to the contrary.” Now, of course, we are to test the spirits and we know we are lied to by the world all the time, so we can neither accept mere appearances or even “experienceed” scientific opinion to be infallible either.

Some things you just can’t separate, like environmentalism is always going to be some cross between science and religion.

Alan
 
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ncjohn:
It might end the matter for you, but it doesn’t address the question of how this situation, where the Church had “always and everywhere” taught geocentrism as a matter of faith…
Arguing that a doctrine is de fide catholica is different than arguing that it is de fide definita. TheWhim is arguing the latter, not the former (or, he’s a bit confused).

For evidence that HV is de fide catholica, I recommend John T. Noonan’s book *** Contraception: A History of Its Treatment by the Catholic Theologians and Canonists***. To argue for the infallibility of geocentricity by virtue of it being taught “everywhere, always, and by all” (de fide catholica), I would expect similar evidence throughout the centuries since the advent of Christianity as we see with contraception. Very little evidence actually exists with regard to geocentrism, other than theological speculation. Nonetheless, this quote from St. Augustine is notworthy: **"In the gospel one does not read that the Savior said: ‘I am sending you the Paraclete who will teach you how the sun and the moon turn.’ He wanted to form Christians, not mathematicians." **

Humanae Vitae and Ordinatio Sacerdotalis are easily argued for de fide catholica, but it is very doubtful they are de fide definita. I understand some bold arguments have been put forth that HV and OS are ex cathedra pronouncements, but it appears to me weakly founded since the magisterium themselves make no such assertion. For example, the Responsum ad dubium of Oct 28, 1995, approved and ordered published by John Paul II asserted Ordinatio Sacerdotalis as an exercise “founded on the written Word of God, and from the beginning constantly preserved and applied in the Tradition of the Church, it has been set forth infallibly by the ordinary and universal Magisterium.” This explicitly states that it was not an exercise of the solemn magisterium (ie., ex cathedra) but that it is infallible by virture of the ordinary univesal magisterium (eg. catholica).

Geocentrism was asserted by popes for only 141 years. I don’t think it constitutes “always, everywhere, and by all” in the sense that St. Vincent of Lérins (d. c. 450) meant when describing this Catholic rule of faith (cf. ch. XXVII, par 70, Commonitory for the Antiquity and Universality of the Catholic Faith).
 
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Benedictus:
…The Church says that abortion is always wrong, beginning at conception, even though it used to be okay within the first month or so.
No. It was always a sin. It was variously understood to be equivalent to murder, and at other times a mortal sin which was not that same as murder (due to various ensoulment theories). However, it was always a sin and never as you assert, “okay within the first month or so.”
The Church has declared that that babies who die without Baptism go to hell, but few people believe that anymore.
No such declaration exists. I suggest you haven’t a clue what you speak of and recommend you study the matter further. The Church declared that those who die in original sin descend immediately to hell. This is still Catholic dogma. However, it never declared that babies who die without sacramental baptism go to hell. If you mean by “baptism” both sacramental and exta-sacramental, then this is correct and still remains Catholic dogma.
Is capital punishment okay? The Church clearly used to say yes, now it kinda, sorta says no.
Just capital punishment is not intrinsically evil, yet it is ripe for abuse. Thus, the policy of the Church is to oppose capital punishment while at the same time admitting that it can be just depending upon the circumstances.
Even transubstantiation is based on a view of reality that most people would now find irrelevant, if not downright absurd.
People’s “view” of reality has no affect on the veracity of reality.
 
Hi Dave, I was kind of hoping you’d come back here to help me understand this. I’m going to run down through this, deleting a lot of what is explanation for things I do understand and fully agree with you on so I can maybe get to the things where I’m struggling.
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itsjustdave1988:
Arguing that a doctrine is de fide catholica is different than arguing that it is de fide definita. TheWhim is arguing the latter, not the former (or, he’s a bit confused).
Totally agree.
To argue for the infallibility of geocentricity by virtue of it being taught “everywhere, always, and by all” (de fide catholica), I would expect similar evidence throughout the centuries since the advent of Christianity as we see with contraception. Very little evidence actually exists with regard to geocentrism, other than theological speculation.
The question in my mind becomes what we make of the Church and the Popes asserting, at the very least through implication, that that is the case? As with councils, these things seldom receive written documents until someone questions something significantly. These statements seem to follow that pattern, especially given the very forceful manner in which they were presented.
Nonetheless, this quote from St. Augustine is notworthy: "In the gospel one does not read that the Savior said: ‘I am sending you the Paraclete who will teach you how the sun and the moon turn.’ He wanted to form Christians, not mathematicians."
Don’t know that that argument helps since I could just as easily substitute in that he didn’t say that he was sending the Paraclete to teach us not to use contraceptives, or that only men can be priests. Most all of these things are deduced from scripture or tradition just as geocentrism was.More importantly, the Church’s statements didn’t rest on the science, but on the matter of faith as the Church found that science to conflict with scripture.
Humanae Vitae and Ordinatio Sacerdotalis are easily argued for de fide catholica, but it is very doubtful they are de fide definita. I understand some bold arguments have been put forth that HV and OS are ex cathedra pronouncements, but it appears to me weakly founded since the magisterium themselves make no such assertion.
Fully agree as I noted in my post
Geocentrism was asserted by popes for only 141 years. I don’t think it constitutes “always, everywhere, and by all” in the sense that St. Vincent of Lérins (d. c. 450) meant when describing this Catholic rule of faith (cf. ch. XXVII, par 70, Commonitory for the Antiquity and Universality of the Catholic Faith).
If you are looking at the Pope’s statements, I agree. But then using that argument HV has only been around for 30 years and OS less than 10. If you go back to Pius XII, I guess one could say that Popes have been asserting the subject matter for 60 or 70–I don’t remember the exact date. Again though, these types of writings and assertions only seem to appear when there is a challenge which brings out a need to clarify. I’d have to go back and re-read to make sure, but my recollection of the language was that it was similar in stating that this was and had been the teaching of the Church and that it was to be definitively held. If we try to assert that they weren’t teachings until a Pope wrote about them, then we get into all kinds of problems, both with statements like HV and OS, and with the Protestant arguments about the Church “inventing” things at some point along the line. It seems to me that if the Pope asserts in his wirting that something is a matter of faith and has been the teaching of the Church that we have to accept that as such.

I guess I’ll go back and read the full text again as I hadn’t looked at it since posting. If you have any comments in the meantime I’d love to see them.

Peace,
 
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ncjohn:
Hi Dave, I was kind of hoping you’d come back here to help me understand this…
I’m on vacation is “sunny” San Francisco so my time online is limited.
The question in my mind becomes what we make of the Church and the Popes asserting, at the very least through implication, that that is the case?
The popes never asserted it as infallible dogma, either by the exercise of their solemn/extraordinary magisterium, nor through the exercise of their ordinary universal magisterium. Instead, it was an assertion of the Roman Curia, approved by the pope (which can never be infallible), and a Papal Bull by Alexandria VIII attached to the Index of Forbidden Books, primarily as a “cover letter” for the Index, primarily an exercise of the supreme authority of the pope as judge, not as magister. So, one papal bull and the rest curial and tribunal affirmations in 141 years.

The way that we can note that it was not intended to be either de fide definita or de fide catholica, as it was not immediately received as such. In fact, it was never received as such. St. Pius X’s Catechism never speaks of it which is odd, as Pius X was no “modernist” was he? In fact, it was never taught as an article of faith after Alexander VII’s Bull in any Catechism that I’m aware of. I find that rather compelling evidence that it was indeed a judicial act, not a magisterial act of the pope.
As with councils, these things seldom receive written documents until someone questions something significantly.
John Noonan’s book has much overwhelming evidence regarding contraception. I await the overwhelming evidence for geocentrism by the early Fathers, synods, councils, popes, and canonists. According to Noonan (who dissented with Humanae Vitae), not one Catholic theologian ever asserted contraception was ok. Of course, that was before Humanae Vitae (1968).
Don’t know that that argument helps since I could just as easily substitute in that he didn’t say that he was sending the Paraclete to teach us not to use contraceptives…
Then let us see the early church on contraception and women priests, hmmmm?

St. Augustine: “For thus the eternal law, that is, the will of God creator of all creatures, taking counsel for the conservation of natural order, not to serve lust, but to see to the preservation of the race, permits the delight of mortal flesh to be released from the control of reason in copulation only to propagate progeny” (ibid., 22:30).

More to the point, if Geocentricity is de fide catholica, I’d like to see the evidence. What was the earliest claim? Was that claim sustained throughout Catholic history? Geocentricity was no longer asserted after 141 years by popes, is that true of contraception or women priests?
Most all of these things are deduced from scripture or tradition just as geocentrism was.
Yes, and popes have erred in the past as to what they deduced from scripture or tradition (cf. John XXII on the Beatific Vision immediately after death). Geocentricity was clearly a teaching of the pope for 141 years, but was it de fide catholica? If so, why? Does the criteria described by St. Vincent de Lerins apply?
But then using that argument HV has only been around for 30 years and OS less than 10.
But the teaching for both has been asserted since the advent of Christianity, even according to those that oppose these documents.
these types of writings and assertions only seem to appear when there is a challenge which brings out a need to clarify.
Yes, and when it was clarified, it fizzled in the case of geocentrism, but not in the case of contraception and women priests, but of which have remained constant in the Church (and yet not geocentrism as an article of faith).
It seems to me that if the Pope asserts in his wirting that something is a matter of faith and has been the teaching of the Church that we have to accept that as such.
True of the living magisterium. I think your approach is flawed, however, as you seem to want to use sola traditio. Use the living magisterium and tell me what they say about Geocentrism, contraception, and women priests.

Catholicism is not a correspondence course from past popes. We Taught Church do not have the authority to determine the authentic teachings of the Teaching Church.
 
This brings me back around to one of my original concerns about Church teachings.

If we have various “levels” of infallibility, and these levels are important to the faith, then why is it a matter of discovery at all to determine whether any given teaching is infallible? If there is a technical term that would apply, such as ex cathedra, why doesn’t the Church simply attach the appropriate “warning label” if it isn’t infallible, and “endorsement” if it isn’t?

When we don’t know for sure whether the pope is speaking at any given time as a “judicial” or as a “magisterial” act, then what are we supposed to deduce?

Again, if science had not come in with a clearer explanation of the motion of the planets than could be ascertained with a geocentric view, we would not be having this discussion seriously as the Church view would still be prominent and unquestioned.

The real risk to all this is that people go around living their lives based on what Church leaders tell them, but it sounds like any given teaching is open to being wrong under the catch-all phrase “well it wasn’t ex cathedra” or “it wasn’t… <fill in the blank with the right technical term.”

Basically, this gives an unbiased outsider the impression that the Church’s teachings are potentially “hot air” unless they have the elusive stamp of “ex cathedra” approval. Only problem is, we have no clear indication as to what teachings have that stamp. Therefore all the Church has to do is make statements about everything and all things, and then if she’s wrong let her apologists excuse her for she hadn’t pronounced it infallibly. Meanwhile, Catholics are supposed to believe ALL of Church teachings, or only those that are infallible as a matter of faith?

Certainly the Church has not so entangled herself with the infallibility argument that she falls under the scope of the critique I have tentatively offered. Does anybody else get what I’m trying to say, and if so is there a reasonable answer for it that doesn’t involve the laity generally dismissing the whole notion of papal infallibility?

Alan
 
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AlanFromWichita:
If we have various “levels” of infallibility, and these levels are important to the faith, then why is it a matter of discovery at all to determine whether any given teaching is infallible? … When we don’t know for sure whether the pope is speaking at any given time as a “judicial” or as a “magisterial” act, then what are we supposed to deduce?
Whether something is infallible or not seems to only matter to theologians–for academic reasons–or to dissenters who want to rationalize to themselves the reasons they should not obey Sancta Mater Ecclesia.

For faithful Catholics, it really ought not to matter. When the Teaching Church teaches, the Taught Church owe their religious assent of mind and will, whether matters of faith, morals, discipline, or liturgy. There is no holiness in dissension with the Pope, whether he’s being infallible or not.

One lacks humility when they second guess the living magisterium about their interpretation of Holy Writ or Holy Tradition.

St. Catherine of Sienna: “*For divine obedience never prevents us from obedience to the [Pope]: nay, the more perfect the one, the more perfect is the other. And we ought always to be subject to his commands and obedient unto death. However indiscreet obedience to him might seem, and however it should deprive us of mental peace and consolation, we ought to obey; and I consider that to do the opposite is a great imperfection, and deceit of the devil.” *(Letter to Brother Antonio of Nizza)

We must abide rather by the pope’s judgment than by the opinion of any of the theologians, however well versed he may be” (St. Thomas Aquinas, Questiones Quodlibetales, IX:8).

“… ***one does not oppose to the Pope’s authority that of others, however learned they may be, who differ from him. For however great their learning, they must be lacking in holiness, for there can be no holiness in dissension from the Pope.” ***(Pope St. Pius X, allocution of 18 November, 1912, AAS vol. 4 (1912), 693-695. Selection from p. 695)"

Hebrews 13:17 “Obey your leaders and submit to them; for they are keeping watch over your souls, as men who will have to give account. Let them do this joyfully, and not sadly, for that would be of no advantage to you.
Code:
                                                        "***I say ******with Cardinal* Bellarmine whether***** the Pope be infallible or not in any pronouncement, anyhow he is to be obeyed. No good can come from disobedience...****when he speaks formally and authoritatively he speaks as our Lord would have him speak...therefore the Pope's word stands, and a blessing goes with obedience to it, and no blessing with disobedience**" *(Venerable John Henry Cardinal Newman, "'The Oratory, Novr. 10, 1867", The Genius of Newman (1914), by Wilfrid Ward, Vol II, Ch. 26)
15th cent. monk, Thomas a’ Kempis, Imitation of Christ,

***It is a very great thing to live in obedience, to be under a superior, and not to be free to do as we please. ***

It is much safer to obey than to govern.

Many live under obedience more from necessity than from love, and such are discontented and easily complain. They cannot attain freedom of mind unless they willingly and heartily put themselves under obedience for the love of God.

Go wherever you will, but you will still find no rest except in humble subjection under the government
of a superior.
 
Dave,

I really appreciate your last post. You seem to understand my concern, and you are speaking to the spirit of the rules and not just reciting “canned” responses.

Recently I have realized how important it is to the institution of the Church and her longevity that theologians deal with such matters. The fact that they do, and that people who obviously don’t understand 90% of it have given their lives for centuries so that we may have the story still here throughout 2000 years of oppression, that is quite the testimony to the “aliveness” of the story.

All that said, it really isn’t important for every member to know every detail, as each member only needs a certain amount of information to work on. If a person wants to know the truths, certainly it should be possible for them to seek it, and have some hope of grasping it.

Alan
 
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AlanFromWichita:
Dave,

I really appreciate your last post. You seem to understand my concern, and you are speaking to the spirit of the rules and not just reciting “canned” responses.

Recently I have realized how important it is to the institution of the Church and her longevity that theologians deal with such matters. The fact that they do, and that people who obviously don’t understand 90% of it have given their lives for centuries so that we may have the story still here throughout 2000 years of oppression, that is quite the testimony to the “aliveness” of the story.

All that said, it really isn’t important for every member to know every detail, as each member only needs a certain amount of information to work on. If a person wants to know the truths, certainly it should be possible for them to seek it, and have some hope of grasping it.

Alan
I’ve been reading G.K. Chesterton’s book, St. Thomas Aquinas. What you are grappling with reminded me of the following from Chesterton’s book…
[St. Thomas Aquinas] *seems inclined to admit that truth could be reached by a rational process, if only it were rational enough; and also long enough… In his controversies, he always assumes that they will listen to reason. That is, he does emphatically believe that men can be convinced by argument; when they reach the end of the argument. Only his common sense also told him that the argument never ends… **St. Thomas takes the view that the souls of all the ordinary hard-working and simple-minded people are quite as important as the souls of thinkers and truth-seekers; and he asks how all these people are possibly to find time for the amount of reasoning that is needed to find truth. The whole tone of the passage shows both a respect for scientific enquiry and a strong sympathy with the average man. His argument for Revelation is not an argument against Reason; but it is an argument for Revelation. The conclusion he draws from it is that men must receive the highest moral truths in a miraculous manner; or most men would not receive them at all.

We must never presume that the faith of theologians is what God wants of us. He desires instead the faith of children. As I continue to study theology, it is a sobering reminder that in the history of the Church, heresies and schisms did not begin with a simple obedient believer, but always a learned theologian who came to learn so much that he thought he knew more about Christianity than Sancta Mater Ecclesia.
 
Even today, we speak of the sun rising and setting. Why? Because it’s the only way one can explain what is observed. The statement is not a scientific statement in that it doesn’t specify the cause of such an observation.It is mearly meant to convey a simple observation. How can one describe a sunset by using a terminolgy which uses only the earth’s motion? :confused:

Let us take the words of a 20th century university professor who witnessed the Fatima miracle of Octobre 13/ 1906
“Professor Almeida Garrett, of Coimbra University, a scientist, described the phenomena in the following terms:
The sun ( the disk?), revolving all the time, began falling toward the Earth, reddish and bloody, threatening to crush everyone under its fiery weight…’”
Therefore, the sun standing still would certainly have been describe as such by people within our century as well.

As for the Copernican theory.
Corpernicus’ De revolutionibus orbium coelestium was dedicated to Pope Paul III., and by him was well received owing to Osiander’s clever preface.
The introduction of the Copernicus theory was readily accepted as being a potentially superior theory than Ptolemy’s. I think this is an important step in understanding the Galileo’s trial.
However, it greatly failed to explain what was being observed
Copernicus’ system was not experimentally better than Ptolemy’s model. Copernicus was aware of this and could not present any observational “proof” in his manuscript, relying instead on arguments about what would be a more complete and elegant system.
Once the Copernicus theory failed to deliver, the Ptolemy’s model was claimed to be superior. Then, biblical passages expressing movements of the sun, as opposed to the earth’s was brought in the arena in order to suppress the Copernicus theory in being accepted simply due to it’s “elegancy”.
In March, 1611, he(Galileo) paid his first visit to Rome, and was cordially received by Paul V., and many Cardinals of his Court—Farnese, Del Monte, and Barberini, the future Urban VIII. Angered at this kindly reception a Florentine noble, Francesco Sizzi, published his Dianoia Astronomica and declared that Galileo’s theory expressly contradicted the Scriptures.
Again, at first, Galileo’s persuit to explain(prove) the Copernicus system was welcomed.Although, we see at the same time some opposition were lashing out already against him.
We must not forget that while Galileo thought that he had demonstrated his theory, there is no scholar today who admits that he did. The only three scientific arguments he used: the movement of the solar spots, the phenomenon of the tides, and the phases of Venus, either proved nothing in favor of the Copernican theory, or were in absolute contradiction to the facts.
And so, Galileo also failed to deliver proof, and so, with the complication existing in scriptures, Ptolemy’s model was still champion (even on scientific grounds), and did not have the difficulty of certain scriptural references interpretation needed.
The condemnation and the censur on Galileo’s hypothesis was not due to the theory as being impossible to accept. It was, for many years, given the chance to be proven to be superior to Ptolemy’s model. It failed to do so, and so the court forbid Galileo to further teach the hypothesis any further.

Andre
 
Please forgive me for not knowing the Ptolemy v Galileo concept.

Back in those days, I’m sure the idea of “center” had a concrete meaning.

The idea, however, that either the earth, sun, or any other particular body is the “center” of the universe is simply a matter of how you define the word “center.”

The “center” of the universe can be defined, but not found.

I think many people mistakenly think that the relativistic argument (by this I mean the nature of the argument itself, not that the argument involved high speed and time dilation, etc) that it depends on the frame of reference is somehow flawed because it is, in fact, relativistic. That only means that things appear differently from different points of view, and that those “appearances” apply to more than just visual observation.

In other words, if I were somehow to stand on the sun, and a friend was standing on earth, each of us has a valid claim to be at the “center” because each of us perceives the universe from our own viewpoint and without any perceivable limits in any direction (i.e. we must be at the “center” as opposed to one edge, maybe).

Now, if a person says that the sun rotates about the earth, I can support them, because if your reference frame is the earth it certainly does. If a person says the earth rotates about the sun, then as long as I’m standing on the sun, it is absolutely clear the earth is going around me.

The difference is which gives a simpler picture. When one looks from earth, all the stars and not just the sun go around the same way. Not so looking toward earth from the sun; the earth goes in its own motion with practically no relationship at all to which way the stars are moving.

In my mind, I can absolve anybody who wishes to assign a frame of reference – moving or not – and call that “center.” If they do so to the exclusion of others who have a different idea of center, I can attack the exclusionary nature of their argument.

If the Church wishes to state that the earth is at the center of the universe, I can uphold her but only within philosophical guidelines. My own idea is that there is no particular “place” in space that is constantly the “center” as in the center of mass, or the center of motion. (There may be a center of mass but I don’t know about it yet if there is – especially since mass and energy are simply two forms of the same thing I can’t see it staying in one place relative to any other heavenly body.) From the standpoint that in reality, the earth is stationary in some special way compared to other bodies, and all of their motions are around us I say “nonsense.” That is certainly a valid way to analyze the motion but it creates complexity which is practically intractible and I personally think is simply wrong. The only reason the earth is “special” in this regard, as I see it, is that we are on it and from here we stake our observatories and launch our space probes.

Still, to me, the more important question for the Church is, has she in fact infallibly condemned points of view other than “earth-centric” and has she made a proclamation (with enough language to fool scholars for years into thinking it was intended to be infallible) outside the realm of faith and morals and in the topic of science? If so, then it seems she may have abused her powers. If she abuses her powers by claiming them in realms where she has none, then how do we know that when she does pronounce something that “appears” to us to be a matter of faith and morals that it is actually from God?

Alan
 
…cut for brevity.
Alan

Very good point Alan; however, it is clear that those who held the view of the Ptolemic system, believed the sun did revolve around the earth, and not only as a philosophical,or relative point of view. They did take the stars as a reference point. They claimed the orbit of the Earth was as a point with respect to the fixed stars, and because the fixed stars did not reflect the Earth’s annual motion by showing an annual parallax, the sphere of the fixed stars had to be too immense for this view to be taken in seriously.
My point was that Ptolemy’s system was based on Aristotelian
philosophy where bodies moved to their natural places. Stones fell because the natural place of heavy bodies was the center of the universe, and that was why the Earth was there. Accepting Copernicus’ system meant abandoning Aristotelian physics.Therefore, notice the geocentric philosophy was a cosmological and astronomical thought based on Aristotle and Ptolemy…not the bible.
It is to my opinion, that some biblical references (sun stood still for Joshua) was thrown in the arena by those who supported the Ptolemy’s system in order to destroy the Copernicus’ theory before it developped.In other words, it seems to me the issue was political from the start to the end.
In 1533 Albert Widmannstadt delivered a series of lectures in Rome, outlining Copernicus’ theory. These lectures were watched with interest by several catholic cardinals, including Pope Clement VII. By 1536 Copernicus’ work was already in definitive form, and some rumors about his theory had reached educated people all over Europe. From many parts of the continent, Copernicus received invitations to publish.
In a letter, dated Rome, 1 November, 1536, Cardinal Nicola Schönberg of Capua wrote, asking Copernicus to communicate his ideas more widely and requesting a copy for himself; “Therefore, learned man, without wishing to be inopportune, I beg you most emphatically to communicate your discovery to the learned world, and to send me as soon as possible your theories about the Universe, together with the tables and whatever else you have pertaining to the subject.” Some have suggested that this note may have made Copernicus leery of publication[citation needed], while others have suggested that this letter indicates that the Church wanted to ensure that his ideas were published[citation needed].
This type of immediate support by the church is very important in order to see the whole picture.To continue the article, it’s obvious the battle ground was not between science and religion, but between two different scientific theories.
In spite the insistence of many, Copernicus kept delaying the final publication of his book; a main reason for it was probably the fear of criticism for his revolutionary work by the establishment. About this, historians of science like Lindberg and Numbers say that: “If Copernicus had any genuine fear of publication, it was the reaction of scientists, not clerics, that worried him. Other churchmen before him- Nicole Oresme (a bishop) in the fourteenth century and Nicholas of Cusa (a cardinal) in the fifteenth-had freely discussed the possible motion of the earth, and there was no reason to suppose that the reappearance of this idea in the sixteenth century would cause a religious stir.” [4].
…because the movement of the earth was not a theological issue.

Now, as to the condemnation given to Galileo. One must understand that the philosophers already had usually an influencial position within the church, as some were bishops. Galileo’s mistake was not in promoting the Copernicus system at first but to claim it as “truth”, that is, he held it dogmatically. This immediately made the church suspicious of his work. He had been given the right to introduce his theory as an hypothesis.As soon as he wrote the Copernicus theory as a truth, he immediately fell into his opponents hands. The truth of Copernicus system now “had” to be proven, and if he failed, the theory was to be cease in continuing to be taught. Therefore the condemnation of the Copernicus theory centered (not on the theory itself) but on the failure of Galileo in proving the theory to be true, which, he indeed failed to do.The church could not have held the Copernicus system as being heretical if the church clearly allowed and “supported” it to be proposed and taught as an hypothesis.Galileo failed in two ways; he introduced the teaching as dogma, and he disobeyed the church in his 1616 trial
by continuing to teach his theory after it was forbidden him to do so…again, it seems that he was forbidden because he taught his theory dogmaticly.

Andre
 
After sorting through much of the ecclesiastical history on the matter, it appears that the 1616 pontifical condemnation of Copernicanism (a non-infallible congregation decision) approved by Paul V was based upon the lack of directed correction to the text. The condemnation stated,
And because it has also come to attention of the aforementioned Sacred Congregation that the Pythagorean doctrine concerning the mobility of the earth and the immobility of the sun, which Nicholas Copernicus, De revolutionibus orbium coelestium . . . taught, and which is false and altogether incompatible with divine Scripture, is now spread abroad and accepted by many . . .; therefore in order that an opinion ruinous to Catholic truth not creep further in this manner, the Sacred Congregation decrees that the said Nicholas Copernicus . . . be suspended until corrected
In 1620, just four years later, the De Revolutionibus Orbium Caelestium of Copernicus was reprinted at Rome with ecclesiastical permission and containing a monitum addressed to the reader and certain corrections to the text in order that its expressions favourable to heliocentrism should be understood only as a hypothesis proposed on account of its potential practical utility.

Likewise, after Alexander VII’s non-infallible re-publication of the Index Librorum Prohibitorum in 1664-65, Catholic mathematicians in 1742 published with ecclesiastical approbation a text of Newton’s Principia with annotated explanations describing that the work assumes the hypothesis of the earth’s movement. Thus, again, so long as the scientific thesis was presented as a hypothesis of science and not as theological dogma, the Church allowed and approved its publication.

In 1757: Pope Benedict XIV in recognition of the new status held by heliocentrism in the scholarly world since the writings of Isaac Newton, suspended the decrees of the Congregation of the Index against heliocentric works.

Thus, to assert that these disciplinary and judicial decrees rose to the level of infallible and immutable dogma is absurd. It was never defined by the solem magisterium as such, neither by ecumenical council nor papal ex cathedra act.
 
Very good post, Dave. I would like to express some of my thoughts on the “language” being used in the condemnation of the Copernicus theory. I do believe the Tribunal ( those who defended the Ptolemic system)used the strongest words “possible” in trying to eliminate the Copernicus system. However, they did seem to fall short in identifying the movement of the earth as being truly heretical in nature.
This Holy Tribunal being therefore of intention to proceed against the disorder and mischief thence resulting, which went on increasing to the prejudice of the Holy Faith, by command of His Holiness and of the Most Eminent Lords Cardinals of this supreme and universal Inquisition, the two propositions of the stability of the Sun and the motion of the Earth were by the theological Qualifiers qualified as follows:
The proposition that the Sun is the center of the world and does not move from its place is absurd and false philosophically and formally heretical, because it is expressly contrary to Holy Scripture.
The first proposition was heliocentrism; a philosophical and theological theory advanced by Copernicus, which identified the sun as the giver of life and light to humans, and so could be used as a symbol for Christ, the true center of the universe.He therefore “assumed” the sun to be standing still. This may have been regarded as being too close to a type of sunworship and did not have any biblical support.This proposition was indeed regarded as heretical.
The proposition that the Earth is not the center of the world and immovable but that it moves, and also with a diurnal motion, is equally absurd and false philosophically and theologically considered at least erroneous in faith.
However, the second proposition, being the earth’s rotation and revolution around the sun was identified as being
“theologically considered at least erroneous in faith”. While this might assume a danger in “leaning” towards heresie, it was not
accused of being an heretical, blasphemous belief as such.

Andre
 
Neither heliocentrism nor geocentrism is a matter of faith or morals. Just because I say it’s a sin to enjoy a little Mili Vanili doesn’t make it so. If the Pope had declared a belief in geocentrism or a rejection of heliocentrism to be a matter of faith and/or morals, and I firmly dispute that he did, he would simply have been mistaken about that categorization. Which is not a problem for Catholicism, because said declaration would not have fallen within the classification of those false pronouncements which the Pope is prevented by the Holy Spirit from declaring.

The Pope could come out tomorrow and declare as a matter of faith that the Cubs are going to win the 2006 World Series. The Cubs winning (which I hope and pray for, but know will never come) would not prove that the Pope was infallible, and their inevitable collapse would not prove the pope fallible. Because the declaration itself, even if made for the entirety of the world ex cathedra, was not concerning a matter of faith and/or morals.
 
Sorry, I didn’t want to post anymore but when starting the computer this morning, I felt compelled - maybe by the inspiration of the HolyGhost? - to urn on CatholicsAnswers.

At the moment I’m preparing my conversion.

I’s not that I would solely base my conversion on the church’s condemnation of heliocentrism. There are many other points in doctrine that seem at least fragwürdig to me(I cannot express this in English - ah, well, DOUBTFUL is the term).

I just want to make sure that you, itsjustdave, don’t get a wrong opinion on my faith. I’m certainly not searching for a “pretext to leave the Catholic Church”.

Since I was fifteen, I believe, I strongly felt the wish of attaining the Catholic priesthood. Therefore, I early began studies. But the more I studied church history and dogmatical history(Dogmengeschichte), the more I was reminded of what my parish priest warned me against: “You should not forget this one thing: one shouldn’t lose one’s faith because of theology.”

I’m very earnest about religious matters and certainly don’t feel inclined to convert to Protestantism(what I am at the moment preparing for). The lack for monastery virtues in Protestantism, celibacy, for example, Luthers sacrilegious marriage, for example, this I regard with utmost disgust. But I’m always focussed on doctrine. Therefore, this won’t constitute an obstacle.
 
What really exasperates me,. my dear dave, is that you still haven’t bothered to read my postings.

For example, you’re writing:

Instead, it was an assertion of the Roman Curia, approved by the pope (which can never be infallible),

But, read the “Pontificial Decrees”!! Pius IX, the one who approved the dogma of papal infallablity, and the leading ultramontane theologians, the ones who urged Rome to proclaim papal infallability, actually believed that assertions of the Roman Curia, when the texts deal with matters of faith in utmost authority(for example, condemnding something as “heresy”), ARE infallible. (Please read again postings #58 and #59 of this thread - well, what I am aying AGAIN? Read them for the first time, please.)

Of course, there took place a back-paddling later on at Rome when studies showed that this claim could not reasonably be held. But we got the definitons of First Vatican Council to fence against Rome giving a NEW meaning to a dogma:

Hence, too,that meaning of the sacred dogmas is ever to be maintained which has once been declared by holy mother church, and there must never be any abandonment of this sense under the pretext or in the name of a more profound understanding.

If anyone says that it is possible that at some time, given the advancement of knowledge, a sense may be assigned to the dogmas propounded by the Church which is different from that which the Church has understood and understands: let him be anathema.

Nevertheless, I believe whether the approval of doctrinal documents is ex-cathedra or not, may still be discussed - and I refrained from basing my argument on it. My argument based mainly on Alexanders bull, and you, dear dave, object against it-
 
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