J
jam070406
Guest
Yes, Moral relativism.No, and here’s why. Atheism does not make a claim of having access to a transcendental, perfect, and ultimate moral authority.
Yes, the RCC does. And just because people commit actions against that authority does not make that authority false.The RCC does claim to have access to a transcendental, perfect, and ultimate moral authority.
No, we can conclude that it NEEDS an absolute authority and it rejects an absolute authority in order to justify a morality that is only relative to that individual atheist.So if we see morals from atheistic groups shifting over time, even committing atrocities, we cannot conclude that atheism has made a false claim about its source for morals.
But it hasn’t changed, only the opinions and actions of individuals, relating to that individual or group of individuals going against Church Teaching and not in line with absolute Truth.On the other hand, if we see the Church’s moral outlook changing over time it casts doubt on the claim that it has access to a transcendental, timeless, ultimate moral authority.
Jesus left the authority to bind and loose with His Church. I’m not going to comment on your sensitive situation other than, it is done and God is a forgiving and loving God who seeks you to return to Him. NO sin is greater then His mercy.That is all well and good, and I will agree with you here. However, it does leave the central question unresolved. It leaves it unresolved because these guidelines do not cover all moral issues. For instance, my wife and I used IVF to have children. According to the hierarchy of the RCC, we have done something that was morally incorrect. My point is: Says who?
Do I really need to answer this?What gives the earthly hierarchy of the Church the right to say this is moral, this is not?
The Truth has not changed.They claim it is because they have access to a transcendental, perfect, ultimate moral authority. Not only is that suspect, their history casts serious doubt on the claim.