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1AugustSon7
Guest
While I know we here typically answer questions and defend objections to Catholicism as they appear, at this point I need some help defending an objection outside of this site. I am going to do my best to present the objection without causing any offence; however, one part of the nature of the objection certainly isn’t easy to deal with because it is patently uncharitable and deliberately hyper-scandalous/sensational: Moderators, if anything I write would seem to cross the line in reporting the objection please feel free to edit or delete but know that it is my intention to refute the objection and that I do not sympathize with its underlying animus.
The objection is strictly targeted at the OF. I have the feeling that this objection arose secondarily: i.e., it is not a or the reason for disliking or not attending the OF, but an added excuse to “confirm” someone in that/their stance/attitude.
In the OF, the priest says: “Blessed are you, Lord, God of all creation,” etc.:
It is said by some that this part of the Mass “replaced” the Offertory. I am not sure if it constitutes a strict “swap,” but others may know better.
Further, they claim this whole part was taken (as if verbatim) from the Jewish Talmud, specifically from some of its prescribed Benedictions. Therefore, they say, it is not Christian or appropriate for Christians to pray it.
Now presently my answer to this objection would be (and please someone correct me if this is wrong) that it is not so much borrowed or taken from the Talmud as such, but adapted from Jewish prayer/liturgy, since a lot of Jewish synagogue liturgy seems (and again someone correct me if I’m wrong) to be from the Talmud (or perhaps vice-versa?). It is an assumption on their part that this benediction was, as it were, photocopied from the Talmud; whereas, it is more likely from or inspired by Jewish synagogue liturgy: i.e., its relationship to the Talmud being only accidental if it exists.
Ultimately, the objection means to imply:
i) That the sacrificial nature of the Mass is suppressed by this blessing-offering, and
ii) That its source is anti-Christian and, therefore, it becomes something of a coup.
From what I have been able to gather, those promoting this objection are not telling the full truth:
Firstly, that (as I said) it is not a strict (verbatim) quote of an actual or total Talmudic or Jewish benediction, but rather a borrowing and also adaptation of a common element to many Jewish benedictions (i.e., Blessed are you, Lord God of the universe), which common part of the benediction is obviously and completely benign.
Further, this part of the benediction (and those objecting pretend that there is no scriptural basis for this prayer formula) is indeed found in even the New Testament and included in a positive sense:
Luke 1:68: [68] Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; because he hath visited and wrought the redemption of his people:
The “Jewish Table-Blessing” Element of the Objection:
Now those objecting also say that it is (or they have been told it is) a “Jewish” table-blessing, thus emphasizing or stressing their belief that it is effectively a suppression of the sacrificial nature of the Mass as expressed in the EF’s Offertory, with at least the implication that it constitutes some sort of a coup d’etat.
However, it is clearly not, I think, a “Jewish” table-blessing strictly speaking, because since when was food offered at the table by anyone (Jew or Christian) in this manner? I mean, do Jews actually have a formula before eating supper that says, equivalently, “Blessed are You… through Your goodness we have this bread [or wine or whatever] to offer…” ? The traditional Catholic equivalent would be “Bless us Lord and these Thy gifts which we are about to receive from Thy bounty,” etc. The food is not actually “offered,” whereas, in the OF something is actually being offered to God. Are we supposed to believe Jews actually “offer” all their food to God in this way or sense?
So that is where I stand. If anyone could give me any help or commentary or constructive criticism I would appreciate it!
Thank you!
The objection is strictly targeted at the OF. I have the feeling that this objection arose secondarily: i.e., it is not a or the reason for disliking or not attending the OF, but an added excuse to “confirm” someone in that/their stance/attitude.
In the OF, the priest says: “Blessed are you, Lord, God of all creation,” etc.:
It is said by some that this part of the Mass “replaced” the Offertory. I am not sure if it constitutes a strict “swap,” but others may know better.
Further, they claim this whole part was taken (as if verbatim) from the Jewish Talmud, specifically from some of its prescribed Benedictions. Therefore, they say, it is not Christian or appropriate for Christians to pray it.
Now presently my answer to this objection would be (and please someone correct me if this is wrong) that it is not so much borrowed or taken from the Talmud as such, but adapted from Jewish prayer/liturgy, since a lot of Jewish synagogue liturgy seems (and again someone correct me if I’m wrong) to be from the Talmud (or perhaps vice-versa?). It is an assumption on their part that this benediction was, as it were, photocopied from the Talmud; whereas, it is more likely from or inspired by Jewish synagogue liturgy: i.e., its relationship to the Talmud being only accidental if it exists.
Ultimately, the objection means to imply:
i) That the sacrificial nature of the Mass is suppressed by this blessing-offering, and
ii) That its source is anti-Christian and, therefore, it becomes something of a coup.
From what I have been able to gather, those promoting this objection are not telling the full truth:
Firstly, that (as I said) it is not a strict (verbatim) quote of an actual or total Talmudic or Jewish benediction, but rather a borrowing and also adaptation of a common element to many Jewish benedictions (i.e., Blessed are you, Lord God of the universe), which common part of the benediction is obviously and completely benign.
Further, this part of the benediction (and those objecting pretend that there is no scriptural basis for this prayer formula) is indeed found in even the New Testament and included in a positive sense:
Luke 1:68: [68] Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; because he hath visited and wrought the redemption of his people:
The “Jewish Table-Blessing” Element of the Objection:
Now those objecting also say that it is (or they have been told it is) a “Jewish” table-blessing, thus emphasizing or stressing their belief that it is effectively a suppression of the sacrificial nature of the Mass as expressed in the EF’s Offertory, with at least the implication that it constitutes some sort of a coup d’etat.
However, it is clearly not, I think, a “Jewish” table-blessing strictly speaking, because since when was food offered at the table by anyone (Jew or Christian) in this manner? I mean, do Jews actually have a formula before eating supper that says, equivalently, “Blessed are You… through Your goodness we have this bread [or wine or whatever] to offer…” ? The traditional Catholic equivalent would be “Bless us Lord and these Thy gifts which we are about to receive from Thy bounty,” etc. The food is not actually “offered,” whereas, in the OF something is actually being offered to God. Are we supposed to believe Jews actually “offer” all their food to God in this way or sense?
So that is where I stand. If anyone could give me any help or commentary or constructive criticism I would appreciate it!
Thank you!