This quote is explaining that it is not limited to pagans (or non-believers) who can wilfully be against the Church, but also those who ARE members of Judaism (Jews) or Christianity (Heretics and Schismatics), who have deliberately denied the truth that they know and have therefore placed themselves outside the Catholic Church.
However much I look at the quote, it’s meaning does not change for me.
It **doesn’t say anything **about “being wilfully against the Church”, it says and implies **nothing **about “deliberately denying the truth”. It clearly and bluntly says - “Those who live outside the Church”.
It makes it very clear who it refers to: pagans, jews, heretics and schismatics. No distinction is made, they are all bundled togheter.
Even more important, it goes on and elaborates, as if to drive home the point, that it also applies to those who are very charitable, and even to those who
die for Christ:
and that the unity of the ecclesiastical body is so strong that only to those remaining in it are the sacraments of the Church of benefit for salvation, and do fastings, almsgiving, and other functions of piety and exercises of Christian service produce eternal reward, and that no one, whatever almsgiving he has practiced, even if he has shed blood for the name of Christ, can be saved, unless he has remained in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church.
How can you imagine that one who is charitable, gives alms, fasts, exercises Christian piety and sheds his blood for Christ could also be “deliberately denying the truth” ?! Don’t you see the contradiction in your argument ? And yet the Council of Constance says, with all the infailibility of the Church behind it, that such people will go into everlasting fire, unless the are Catholic.
Many people have told you that your interpretation of the passage you quoted is incorrect, and I think you’d be hard pressed to find a good Catholic apologist who agreed with you. You might want to check your motives in persisting with your disagreement. What is more important - the sentence in the document you have quoted, or the Church’s teaching on what it means?
I’m sorry, but absolutely every interpretation I have read, both here and elsewhere, however well intended, looks like rationalisation, sounds and smells like rationalisation, is rationalisation
I understand and believe that the current teaching is true. Bu it was not always so.
The more important for me is that the teaching of the Church should not contradict itself. I cannot accept anything and everything, be it against logic and reason.
.
I suggest you go back through a process of reasoning to determine whether you truly believe that the Catholic Church is the true church (apart from these two issues). If everything else lines up, then you need to decide whether to accept the interpretation of the passage you quoted, or stick with your own. If you accept the interpretation, it seems there isn’t too much difficulty for you.
What you are asking me to do is to abanddon reason, and accept
whatever the Church teaches ? Because to me, it amounts to that: it is against logic, against common sense and against reason to accept that “nobody” could in fact mean “somebody”.
I think “…joined to the Church…” is the key phrase. As someone else pointed out in this thread, St. Augustine observes that there may be those “joined to the Church” who are not in visible communion.** It may not seem to be the author’s intent to allow this interpretation;** that said, we have no means of reading his mind to discern his intention, which is why the church’s ongoing teaching authority is so important.** It is through the living Magisterium that these issues can be clarified**.
What you are saying is that the Church can basically change it’s teaching, because we can never be sure what the original author (though guided by the Holy Spirit) has meant.
What if, 20 years from now, the Church should say: “We have alvays said that there is no salvation but trough Christ, but… let’s clarify that issue… let’s see what the Church has really meant by that until now…”
Vatican II is speaking after 400 years of Christian heterodoxy (not at an earlier time free from schisms and wholesale breaking away from the Church), with whole generations born outside of the Catholic Tradition. Thus, Vatican II was able to address what the the Church Fathers could not: the phenomenon of “invincible ignorance", i.e., if someone is outside of the Catholic communion through no fault of their own, then they cannot be accused of schism.
But the quote is not from the Church Fathers, it is from the Council of Constance. The schism was already centuries old at that time.
And the way the conciliar fathers adress the issue of schism and the salvation of the Eastern Orthodox is thus: unless you become catholic, you go to hell.
The point is that, whether they choose to accept it or not, all baptized Christians are part of the Catholic church - they are just incomplete in their faith.
If the fathers of Florence had believed that, there would be no mention of schismatics (Eastern Orthodox) as being outside the Church and bereft of means for salvation. But there is:
*
It firmly believes, professes, and proclaims that those not living within the Catholic Church, not only pagans, but also Jews and heretics and
schismatics cannot become participants in eternal life, but will depart “into everlasting fire which was prepared for the devil and his angels”*
I see that I am warned agains pride, but to me it is not a matter of pride. I am not interpreting, I see a rather simple and clear sentence, and now the Church wants me to believe that what was once black and still is black was actually not black, but white.