S
seekerz
Guest
What if you inject something to stop the growth of the primitive placenta (its growth is actually what leads to tube damage and risk of death), and the baby is affected as a result, are the requirements of double effect met?i may be repeating something that everyone has said but i wanted to lay down clearly the 4 necessary components for the principle of double effect to be legitimate. i am in my senior year of catholic high school and i have a great religion teacher. double effect is extremely clarifying and useful for many situations.
ACT- removal of fallopian tube
GOOD EFFECT- preservation of the mother’s life
BAD EFFECT- the death of the baby in the fallopian tube
(1.) the ACT must be morally good or neutral (the removal of the fallopian tube is a surgical procedure that is not inherently evil or inherently good- it is morally neutral)
(2.) the GOOD EFFECT (the saving of the mother’s life) is equal to the BAD EFFECT (the death of the unborn baby). The mother’s and baby’s lives are of equal value, therefore the effects are equal.
(3.) the BAD EFFECT may be foreseen, but not intended. the fallopian tube is not being removed to abort the baby, but to save the mother’s life. it is not a direct attack on the life of the baby, but the baby’s death is a sad and unwanted side effect.
(4.) the GOOD EFFECT must come from the ACT, not as a result of the BAD EFFECT. the preservation of the mother’s life comes from the removal of the fallopian tube, not from the baby’s death.
IF THE BABY IN THE FALLOPIAN TUBE IS KILLED BY ANYTHING BESIDES THE REMOVAL OF THE FALLOPIAN TUBE, IT IS A DIRECT ABORTION AND IT IS NOT OK. double effect DOES NOT work in that situation. if you inject something into the womb that will kill the baby, it is getting rid of the baby instead of getting rid of the problem.
This is the same thing for women who find out they have cancer while they are pregnant- it is legitimate for them to begin chemo to attack the cancer, although the side effect may be the death of their unborn baby.
does that all make sense? i feel like it needed some clarification.
If your dogmatic statement is actually a clear cut representation of the situation, why hasn’t the Church officially spoken directly to the issue of Methotrexate use? Nobody here seems to be able to answer the question: is destruction of the placenta with concurrent death of the baby, essentially different from cutting off the baby’s oxygen and food supply with concurrent death of the baby, all intents being equal (i.e. to save mother rather than to kill baby)?
I maintain that the freedom given by the Church to decide along established principles of respect for life, on a case by case basis, based on a woman’s medical situation and her doctor’s advice, does not allow us to condemn a particular person’s choice of treatment.