S
Sacramentalist
Guest
Dear friends:
An acquaintance of mine, a Unitarian, has brought Hosea 11 up as a proof that Jesus is not God. For in it, God says:
To which he replies:
Anyone?!
An acquaintance of mine, a Unitarian, has brought Hosea 11 up as a proof that Jesus is not God. For in it, God says:
I reply that: “Your objection based on those Old Testament texts is silly, since they were made before the Incarnation, before which time God the Son had assumed a human nature.”Hosea 11:9 “I will not execute the fierceness of My anger; I will not again destroy Ephraim. For I am God, and not man, the Holy One in your midst; and I will not come with terror.”
To which he replies:
Hosea 11:1 “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my Son.” (verse referenced by Matt 2:15, contextually fulfilled by the fact that Christ was in Egypt after he was born for a time). Notice, at the beginning of Hosea 11, God has in the past tense ‘called’ His Son out of Egypt - which event occurred after you claim God had assumed the nature of man. Obviously, then, by verse 9, we are still in a prophetic tense beyond the ‘incarnation’, not before.
Even Peter claims in his first epistle (1:10) “Of this salvation the prophets have inquired and searched carefully…to them it was revealed that, not to themselves, but to us they were ministering the things which now have been reported to you through those who have preached the gospel to you by the holy spirit sent from heaven–”
This seems so rediculous . . . but how do I answer this specific objection?The prophets were not writing in reference to their own time; they were writing in reference to ours - as established by the Apostle Peter, as well as fulfilled prophecy not more than 9 verses before God is portrayed as not man.
Anyone?!