Help with a bible verse

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hoser:
I am a Catholic and my wife is a Baptist. We are having a debate on sola scriptura and a couple of the verses that she is using to defend her being able to interpret scripture without error and without the guidance of the Church are 1John 2:20 + 2:27. Also in 1John 5:6-12.

Here is what 1Jn 2:27 states. “But you have recieved the Holy Spirit, and he lives within you, so you don’t need anyone to teach you what is true. For the spirit teaches you all things, and what he teaches is true-it is not a lie…”

Sure I can say that (and have) if you believe that if everyone who asks for guidance from the Holy Spirit is guided to the truth, then why is there such a great division among protestant churches today? The holy spirit only teaches one truth and not thousands.

But is there another responce that I can give? Is this verse directed towards certain people such as just the Apostles or is it directed at all Christian believers? Please help!

Thankyou
There are logical limitations to John’s letter.

If he meant it the way your wife is interpreting it, then why write the letter?

Why would your wife be interested in reading the Bible at all?


I think that John’s words, about not being in need of being taught, are a kind of “asymptope” – a goal, but not quite reached by most of us who are sinners. That, indeed, is the main theme of 1 John – sinners aren’t there where the truth is.
 
One other thing that might help her is to ask her this:
If she compiled a bunch of letters into a book, then obviously she would have a purpose for doing this, lets say she tells you, her husband, her purpose. Now, let’s say she die’s right after its printed, should people come to you, the man who knew her, for advice on the purpose of her book, or should they just go ahead and interpret it to mean whatever they think, afterall, what does it matter??
I, for one, would go to the source.
 
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