The LDS Church claims public revelation. It claims an open canon of scripture.Bully!
zerinius:
The OP’s question centered on that claim by the LDS Church.
No. It did not. The OP stated the following:
I’m having a friendly debate with some Mormon friends and the argument they kind of have me stumped on is their concept of continuing revelation. Obviously, as Catholics, we believe that everything we need for salvation has been revealed by the Deposit of Faith and that we don’t need ongoing revelation.
I mention the fact that Jesus promised that the Holy Spirit would guide the church and they say that means the Holy Spirit would continue to provide revelation to the church and the fact that the Catholic church relies on councils to determine things proves that we don’t have the spirit revealing the truth to us.
My response was to suggest that the Catholic Church does not reject the notion of ongoing revelations (like Fatima, Guadalupe, Divine Mercy, etc.) but that it rejects the notion that public revelation on matters that would be considered binding doctrine is ongoing. From that point, it can be shown that the Catholic claim to authority to teach Truth from the entire Deposit of Faith comes not from a claim of ongoing public “revelation” but from a claim of guidance by the Holy Spirit, sent by Christ to guide the Pope and those specific “holy councils” that the OP’s LDS “friend” suggests to be “just men” without “revelation.” It’s interesting to note that what the LDS would call “revelation” of truth, a Catholic would call authoritative teaching from the Deposit of Faith - under the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
zerinius:
Your argument that there is also such a thing as a private revelation does not address the OP’s question.
Yes it does. It’s the starting point to distinguishing public (i.e. binding) revelation on the one hand from guidance of the Holy Spirit when teaching with authority from the Deposit of Faith.
zerinius:
How does your argument that there is a private revelation as well as a public revelation address the OP’s concern that he felt “stumped” by the LDS claim to public revelation?
See above.
zerinius:
Does the fact that there is also a private revelation prove that the LDS claim to public revelation cannot be true?
No. I’m not addressing that claim. I’m suggesting that the Catholic position shows (1) revelation has not stopped in a private sense - the sense that most LDS would claim they possess; and (2) that the cessation of public revelation does not support the LDS claim that the authority of the Catholi Church is not guided by the Holy Spirit.
zerinius:
Where is the logic in that argument?
You’re right. When you mangle someone else’s position enough, it tends to lose cohesion. I suggest that you be more careful in your attempt to understand the points others are trying to make. And if my presentation has been unclear on the subject, then I beg your pardon and will try to do a better job of expressing my point in the future.
zerinius:
Your original claim was that the revelation of the Bible is complete, because in it God has “revealed Himself to man,” which (according to you) is the purpose of scripture, therefore no additional scripture or revelation was necessary.
Again, you’re misconstruing my point. I said that public revelation ended with the death of the last Apostle. That’s not the same thing as saying the revelation of the bible is complete. My other point was that the Incarnation completed everything that God intended to reveal about His nature, and that the scriptures were, generally speaking, the anticipation (OT) and a recordation (NT) of that fulfillment. My overall point was that the Catholic Church sees the consummation of God’s Revelation in Jesus Christ Himself, and so there is no further public revelation beyond what He left to His Apostles - and which was passed on to us as the Deposit of Faith.
zerinius:
I was trying to show you why that argument is false. The purpose of scripture is not just for God to tell us: “look at me, here I am; this is my beautiful self”.
This is simply trivializing the point I was making.
zerinius:
God has spoken to man in every age of the world because their needs and their requirements were different. Each required the word of God for their own times and their own needs. Just as the word of God to Moses was not sufficient for the people who lived in the days of David and Solomon; and the word of God to the people of their time were not sufficient for the people who lived in the days Hezekiah and Jeremiah; and the words of God to them was not sufficient for the people who lived in the days of Jesus and His Apostles; similarly the words of God to all of them combined (through highly valuable) is not sufficient for the people of our time. We are as much in need of prophets, Apostles, revelation, scripture, and divine guidance as they did in those days—notwithstanding the great value we all attach to the records of ancient scripture that we already possess.
You say the word of God (Bible?) is not sufficient for the people of our time, but it is valuable. Do you not see the inconsistency here. By your logic, what was the point in compiling the bible if most of what’s contained in it was written for people long gone and not for the “people of today?” You’re missing the forest for the trees. What God said to Abraham, and Moses, and David, and all the prophets reveals to US who and what our God is. This revelation was gradual and deliberate, unfolding up to the point of the Incarnation. It then culminated with Jesus and the Apostles.
There were no prophets after John the Baptist. (until J. Smith if you’re a Mormon) If public revelation was ongoing, why did God no raise up a successor to John the Baptist? Because the One He foretold had already come by.
Peace,
Robert