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pocohombre
Guest
If baptism replaced circumcision why did Paul have Timothy circumcised and baptized ?Poco -
The early Church debated on what day after birth to baptize infants…and not what year. You can read the writings of the early Church on the matter in this link.. The writings of the Church reflect the One Faith - that infants were baptized - that is read in the bible when “whole households” were baptized.
The apostles never put into writing the need to baptized infants as it was understood that baptism replaced circumcision. Again, this can be seen in the writings and Tradition of the Church.
Example from Origen
“For this reason, moreover, the Church received from the apostles the tradition of baptizing infants too.” Origen, Homily on Romans, V:9 (A.D. 244).
On the “other side”
No where in scripture does it say NOT to baptize infants. No where does scripture say that baptism should be delayed to the age of reason. And no where do the early Church writings say the same.
You are following a protestant thought (a recent invention by man) that was not taught by Christ to the apostles.
It’s more “logical” to follow what Christ taught the apostles…and that the apostles taught to their descendants, rather than a man made invention created when the bible was removed and misinterpreted from the One Faith that produced it.
Pork