A
awfulthings9
Guest
In Scott Hahn’s online Scripture study at www.salvationhistory.com, he makes the following comments regarding the flood narrative:
"What’s going on in the story of Ham uncovering “his father’s nakedness” (see Genesis 9:22)? In Hebrew, this phrase is a figure of speech used to describe incest (Leviticus 20:17; 18:6-18. Note: In other places besides the story of Noah and Ham, The New American Bible translates this phrase as “to have intercourse with.” The Revised Standard Version in all cases keeps the more literal translation “uncover the nakedness of.” See RSV-Leviticus 20:17; 18:6-18).
To uncover the nakedness of your father is to commit incest with your mother. To state it bluntly, in all its brutality - while Noah was drunk, Ham slept with his mother. We don’t know what Ham was thinking. It could be that he wanted to seize power from his dad and this heinous act was his way of insulting Noah and showing his total disrespect (see similar episodes in Genesis 29:32; 35:22; 49:3-4; 2 Samuel 16:21-22).
But notice that Noah doesn’t curse Ham. He curses Canaan - the son born of this incestuous encounter. Why Canaan? It’s another hint in the text of what Ham’s crime was. As we’ll see later, Canaan will be the founding father of a nation that will be known for its abominable practice of maternal incest (see Leviticus 18:6-18; Exodus 23:23-24).
Canaan is the bad fruit born of Noah’s sin. But as Adam bore both Cain, the slayer of his brother, and Seth the righteous one, Noah too has a good seed: his firstborn son Shem, who had tried to “cover” his father’s nakedness (see Genesis 9:23).""
I don’t see a problem with the incest concept, except that Shem tries to “cover” his father’s nakedness. If to uncover someone’s nakedness is to “have intercourse with”, exactly what was Shem doing to negate that, exactly? My only theory is that Ham literally did uncover his father’s nakedness after the incest as a sign of disgrace and Shem was literally trying to save some scrap of his dignity, but if the phrase is simply a euphamism, then I’m lost on the literal meaning of Shem’s action. Any help? And yes, I know that Hahn’s interpretation is not an authority, but I’d like to explore his theory and need help past that stumbling block. Take care.
"What’s going on in the story of Ham uncovering “his father’s nakedness” (see Genesis 9:22)? In Hebrew, this phrase is a figure of speech used to describe incest (Leviticus 20:17; 18:6-18. Note: In other places besides the story of Noah and Ham, The New American Bible translates this phrase as “to have intercourse with.” The Revised Standard Version in all cases keeps the more literal translation “uncover the nakedness of.” See RSV-Leviticus 20:17; 18:6-18).
To uncover the nakedness of your father is to commit incest with your mother. To state it bluntly, in all its brutality - while Noah was drunk, Ham slept with his mother. We don’t know what Ham was thinking. It could be that he wanted to seize power from his dad and this heinous act was his way of insulting Noah and showing his total disrespect (see similar episodes in Genesis 29:32; 35:22; 49:3-4; 2 Samuel 16:21-22).
But notice that Noah doesn’t curse Ham. He curses Canaan - the son born of this incestuous encounter. Why Canaan? It’s another hint in the text of what Ham’s crime was. As we’ll see later, Canaan will be the founding father of a nation that will be known for its abominable practice of maternal incest (see Leviticus 18:6-18; Exodus 23:23-24).
Canaan is the bad fruit born of Noah’s sin. But as Adam bore both Cain, the slayer of his brother, and Seth the righteous one, Noah too has a good seed: his firstborn son Shem, who had tried to “cover” his father’s nakedness (see Genesis 9:23).""
I don’t see a problem with the incest concept, except that Shem tries to “cover” his father’s nakedness. If to uncover someone’s nakedness is to “have intercourse with”, exactly what was Shem doing to negate that, exactly? My only theory is that Ham literally did uncover his father’s nakedness after the incest as a sign of disgrace and Shem was literally trying to save some scrap of his dignity, but if the phrase is simply a euphamism, then I’m lost on the literal meaning of Shem’s action. Any help? And yes, I know that Hahn’s interpretation is not an authority, but I’d like to explore his theory and need help past that stumbling block. Take care.