D
dublingirl
Guest
Hi,
I am attending a course on the Bible and the lecturer says that Jesus did not literally say certain phrases e.g. “the Father and I are one” and “I am the way, the truth and the life” - it was the writers of the Gospels who attributed those words to Jesus because they believed He was the Messiah. The writers “put these words into the mouth of Jesus” to convey the message that Jesus was the Messiah. Our lecturer says that this is a literary device used by the writers of the Gospels. She says that we must look to see what message the writer of the Gospel wanted to convey as opposed to believing that what is written in the Gospels was literally said by Jesus. Is this a correct approach?
Most of my class are now confused because it seems that the stories of the miracles of Jesus (e.g. walking on water) and words attributed to Jesus are not literally true. She says they are ‘true’ i.e. they contain an important message but not ‘literally true’. Another example is that most Biblical scholars believe (our lecturer says) that Jesus was not born in Bethlehem but in Nazareth. She says the Gospel writers wrote that Jesus was born in Bethlehem because this was in an Old Testament prophesy. She says that the Gospel writers wanted to convey the message that Jesus was Messiah and therefore wrote that He was born in Bethlehem.
Is the above view correct in relation to the study of the Gospels? It doesn’t necessarily take away the fact that Jesus was the Messiah but it does cast doubt on the accuracy of the Gospel accounts. How do I refute the above view (if it is incorrect)?
I am attending a course on the Bible and the lecturer says that Jesus did not literally say certain phrases e.g. “the Father and I are one” and “I am the way, the truth and the life” - it was the writers of the Gospels who attributed those words to Jesus because they believed He was the Messiah. The writers “put these words into the mouth of Jesus” to convey the message that Jesus was the Messiah. Our lecturer says that this is a literary device used by the writers of the Gospels. She says that we must look to see what message the writer of the Gospel wanted to convey as opposed to believing that what is written in the Gospels was literally said by Jesus. Is this a correct approach?
Most of my class are now confused because it seems that the stories of the miracles of Jesus (e.g. walking on water) and words attributed to Jesus are not literally true. She says they are ‘true’ i.e. they contain an important message but not ‘literally true’. Another example is that most Biblical scholars believe (our lecturer says) that Jesus was not born in Bethlehem but in Nazareth. She says the Gospel writers wrote that Jesus was born in Bethlehem because this was in an Old Testament prophesy. She says that the Gospel writers wanted to convey the message that Jesus was Messiah and therefore wrote that He was born in Bethlehem.
Is the above view correct in relation to the study of the Gospels? It doesn’t necessarily take away the fact that Jesus was the Messiah but it does cast doubt on the accuracy of the Gospel accounts. How do I refute the above view (if it is incorrect)?