Do not ask of me, a degree of proof which you, yourself cannot produce, even for the classical theory.
And my point is, it’s not an original system. It was not created by the actual writers.
The ancient writers used scripta continuousa – they didn’t even leave spaces between words. They had no punctuation, nor any of the more modern scriptoral devices. So the divisions are after the fact.
Absolutely. but there existed, and exist still, context boundaries, which reflect the boundaries between the vignettes used to synthesize the original text. Ammonius in his system of division, used these context boundaries, and the modern system of verses is based on the Ammonian divisions. This is not conjecture. You can test this for yourself.
Huh? Where do you get that?
In point of fact, papyrus was widely used. Parchment was developed at Pergamon because the Ptolomies embargoed papyrus to retard the library of Pergamon.
Yes papyrus was widely used, but except in the desert places, it was rapidly friable, and soon lost. It was adequate for letters and pamphlets, but for any document, expected to survive much handling, parchment was without exception, chosen.
Only in places like Oxyrincus did papyrus survive to any extent, and that was by a geological accident, where other midden contents provided a drying agent, which prevented the rot of time.
Whereas you have a surfeit of that talent.
‘Pieces of eight, pieces of eight!’
Of course not!, whether they are inspired or otherwise, they provide excellent witness to the early church.
Actually, it’s simply an application of Herbivore’s First Law of Epistemology: “Just 'cause I don’t know what happened, that don’t mean I have to accept your cockamamie explanation.”
Look, no-one actually knows what really happened.
In the absence of fact, imagination is required to generate a plausible hypothesis.
If you consider the hypothesis, and it is no more than that, open-mindedly, you will find that it gives good compliance with the Clementine theory of Gospel temporaral sequence, viz:
Matthew,
Luke,
Mark,
John.
Both Matthew and Mark are dependant on ‘Q’, which I submit is actually proto Matthew.
Mark is an unschooled dictation of the words of the illiterate Peter.
John is his own work, with additions of recollections of other disciples, and also of Mary Magdalen.
Why? What relevance does this have to the discussion?
As I said, you have no concrete proofs, you have no right to demand of me proofs better than you have.
I do not dispute the Clementine sequence, my hypothesis supports it, by giving a plausible mechanism.
You want me to have faith in
you?
Absolutely not!
Ah, your whole argument is constructed of mere opinion and ridicule.
Opinion, yes: imagination, yes: ridicule, No, that is your game.