V
VociMike
Guest
Seems like the obvious question to ask is, what does “predestined” mean?
Hi LilyM,Again with those magic words - what does ‘authentic magisterium’ mean and is Dr Ott unable to make an error or mistake in his ability to distinguish ‘authentic’ magisterium from any other kind - or indeed from pronouncements which were not even intended to be any sort of exercise of the Magisterium or any kind?
Here you seem to unintentionally indicate a disjunction between a discipline and that which is binding. In fact, disciplines are binding, no? They are, however, changeable.At the same time, I disagree with what he said about ecumenical councils: not everything an ecumenical council has “promulgated” is binding. Lots of what the early councils said was disciplinary.
Hello Verbum Caro,Here you seem to unintentionally indicate a disjunction between a discipline and that which is binding. In fact, disciplines are binding, no? They are, however, changeable.
VC
I’ve been there too. And no doubt I’ll be there again!I don’t remember what, exactly, I was thinking when I was making that statement.
Over against your conclusion, see Pastor Aeternus:CCC
"88 The Church’s Magisterium exercises the authority … when it proposes, in a form obliging the Christian people to an irrevocable adherence of faith, truths contained in divine Revelation or also when it proposes, in a definitive way, truths having a necessary connection with these. "
So clearly not every ‘proposal’, even proposals in the form of teaching, that comes from a Pope or Council is authoritative - ONLY those that are proposed in such a form that obliges assent. The corollary of this is that there exist forms that do NOT oblige assent.
In the case of Papal teaching, the criteria under which assent is required are strictly defined - the Pope
a) MUST speak ‘ex Cathedra’ (as Popes expressly did NOT do in the case of Humanae Vitae for one, and Pope Benedict’s book ‘Jesus of Nazareth’ for another),
b) MUST speak to matter of faith and morals (ie if the Pope pronounces on which brand of car or football team is, in his opinion, the best, such is not required belief)
c) MUST intend to bind for all time. Thus we are free to disagree with and even criticise the discipline of priestly celibacy, as disciplines can be changed from time to time and thus are not permanent, but must agree and assent to the dogma that women cannot be ordained, which is incapable of change or revocation.
Now Vatican II was merely a pastoral council and pronounced no dogma - our Holy Father says as much en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Vatican_Council:
Um…no.Once again this seems to be a matter of picking and choosing what you want to believe.
It also seems to me that the distinction between obedience and ascent with respect to the varying levels of certainty in Church teaching is not being properly understood or applied.Um…no.
LilyM knows what she’s talking about. She explained it beautifully to you as well. You would do well to pay attention to her on these matters.![]()
To get back to this question… I checked Ott (don’t have the reference but just looking up “predestination” in the index will get close to the passage in question) and looked at the context of this statement. Then, even more to the contrary, CCC # 1037 says “God predestines no one to go to hell,” citing Trent, among others.Obviously I do not beleive that there is heresy in the Catechism of the Catholic Church, or in its Compendium; however, the answer to question seven of the CCCC confused me. It states (emphass added) that “after their fall, he [God] did not cease his revelation to them [Adam and Eve] but promised salvation for all their descendants”. According to Ott’s Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, it is a dogma that “God, by an eternal resolve of His Will, predestines certain men, on account of their foreseen sins, to eternal rejection.” How are we then to understand, then, the Compendium’s statement that God promised salvation for all Adam’s descendants?
It’s not a question of dogmatic or disciplinary in this case - both Popes and councils have said plenty of things that are absolutely neither and according even to themselves require no level of assent. If memory serves, Pope Benedict actually INVITES differing opinion in his intro to Jesus of Nazareth - so how can it possibly demand any assent at all? And Dr Ott’s interpretations of Church documents are definitely not binding in any way!It also seems to me that the distinction between obedience and ascent with respect to the varying levels of certainty in Church teaching is not being properly understood or applied.
Our obedience is required, whether we ascent to a teaching or not, no matter if the Church command is dogmatic or disciplinary. Dogma (and maybe others) also require our intellectual ascent.
Lily,If the Pope woke up tomorrow and said ‘eggs are great for your health’ would we be bound to believe him? Course not.
Easily verified? How can it be possible to ‘easily verify’ every church teaching of the past 2,000 years? What are the criteria? How can anyone say it’s easy when there is debate over things that should be even easier to ascertain, such as exactly how many times Papal Infallibility has been exercised - some argue that Humanae Vitae might be included, for example, when others (including, it seems, Paul VI himself) think not.Lily,
I don’t think diggerdomer or Dan would think any such thing. (would anyone?)
I think, though, what they are referring to are teaching pronouncements of the Holy Father or the College of Bishops which are neither ex cathedra infallible nor infallible due to the exercise of the ordinary and universal Magisterium, thus non-infallible pronouncements. These pronouncements are nevertheless assented to with “religious submission of will and intellect”. These could even be, as I understand it, prudential decisions.
The other class of things that have been brought up in this thread are disciplines - but they aren’t really of the same category as the above things are, since they are an exercise of the governing office and not the teaching office. They nevertheless also are binding on the faithful, just in a different way and for a different reason.
Perhaps your conversation with diggerdomer is being generated by a lack of precision in what, exactly, each of you mean by “pronouncements”. I took diggerdomer to mean those teachings that are proposed for belief. Perhaps you meant by pronouncements, anything that was said by a Pope or Bishop in any context?
As to Ott, I don’t think it is entirely helpful to point out that he himself isn’t binding on the faithful. Neither are any of us – but when we, or Ott, or another author, present or repeat the authentic Magisterial teaching (extraordinary, ordinary, or non-definitive) it is the teaching itself that would seem to require the appropriate kind of assent. The question, of course, is whether or not we or Ott are properly presenting the teaching of the Church. Ott generally gives the actual texts of Church teaching, so it often easily verified.
VC
Lily, my above post was to help you two find a common ground which seems to be getting lost regarding what, exactly, you both mean by pronouncements.Easily verified? How can it be possible to ‘easily verify’ every church teaching of the past 2,000 years when there is debate over, for example, things that should be even easier to ascertain are problematic, such as exactly how many times Papal Infallibility has been exercised - some argue that Humanae Vitae might be included, for example, when others (including, it seems, Paul VI himself) think not.
You seem to think that only an ex cathedra statement binds the faithful. This is not true. When the Pope does teach something (as opposed to a private statement such as one of his books), the faithful are bound to obeyEasily verified? How can it be possible to ‘easily verify’ every church teaching of the past 2,000 years? What are the criteria? How can anyone say it’s easy when there is debate over things that should be even easier to ascertain, such as exactly how many times Papal Infallibility has been exercised - some argue that Humanae Vitae might be included, for example, when others (including, it seems, Paul VI himself) think not.
Not a bit of it - I know that many things that aren’t ex cathedra are binding on the faithful (such as disciplines). And I know that some are binding even if not absolutely expressed as such.You seem to think that only an ex cathedra statement binds the faithful. This is not true. When the Pope does teach something (as opposed to a private statement such as one of his books), the faithful are bound to obey
from the CCC:
scborromeo.org/ccc/p122a3p3.htm#553
scborromeo.org/ccc/p123a9p4.htm#892
892 Divine assistance is also given to the successors of the apostles, teaching in communion with the successor of Peter, and, in a particular way, to the bishop of Rome, pastor of the whole Church, when, without arriving at an infallible definition and without pronouncing in a “definitive manner,” they propose in the exercise of the ordinary Magisterium a teaching that leads to better understanding of Revelation in matters of faith and morals. To this ordinary teaching the faithful "are to adhere to it with religious assent"422 which, though distinct from the assent of faith, is nonetheless an extension of it.
I’d differ at least wrt HV. I think people object to it because they disagree with it. I don’t think they think it’s not binding, they just think it’s erroneous. Maybe not much of a difference to what you’re saying, just my view.What I’m saying it’s that it’s NOT always possible to know with certainty which statements ARE binding and which aren’t. That’s why there has been argument over documents like Quo Primum and Humanae Vitae.![]()
No, I did not. Sorry if you got that impression. I merely pointed out what the Church preference was because it seemed people weren’t aware of it and I think the reasons behind the Church’s teaching are important. And the point is not that all hosts be consumed at Mass, the point is that we should not routinely resort to the Tabernacle to provide hosts for communion at Mass. That’s all. No dogma, just simple Church teaching.And VC, if you’re looking for common ground between me and diggerdomer you’ll be looking for a while. On another thread he’s taken a ‘preference’ from the Church for all consecrated hosts to be consumed at the Mass at which they are consecrated and practically made an infallible dogma out of it!
And VC, if you’re looking for common ground between me and diggerdomer you’ll be looking for a while.
No. These two documents are disputed for entirely different reasons, though the underlying similarity is that of dissent over the right of the Church to bind and loose what they do not like.Not a bit of it - I know that many things that aren’t ex cathedra are binding on the faithful (such as disciplines). And I know that some are binding even if not absolutely expressed as such.
What I’m saying it’s that it’s NOT always possible to know with certainty which statements ARE binding and which aren’t. That’s why there has been argument over documents like Quo Primum and Humanae Vitae.![]()
One simply cannot quote the Church against the Church. For the person who dissents to say “Church document X seems to imply Y. Therefore I can oppose the Church when she says because of X we must do Z.”To an extent these two have been clarified by later Magisterial statements - but similar clarity does not exist in regard to every part of every Council document or Papal Bull, encyclical or other statement.