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At this point, it would be well to address a particular portion of the
Official Relatio that gives rise to some misunderstanding. I have debated Absolutist and Low Petrine advocates who claim that the
Offical Relatio asserts that the Pope does not need the agreement of bishops. Rest assured that opinion is false. Far from denying that the Pope needs the agreement of the bishops, the
Official Relatio explicitly and specifically asserts that the agreement of the PRESENT preaching of the whole Magisterium is the RULE OF FAITH,
even for definitions by the Roman Pontiff. The point of debate between the Majority and Minority Parties at V1 was not whether consensus was necessary (ALL were of one mind on that point), but whether the Pope needs to directly consult all the bishops of the world in order to exercise infallibility. What the
Official Relatio does say is that what the Pope does not need from the bishops is their
direct consultation. Even a 5th grader can understand that consultation and agreement/consensus are two different things. To most of the Majority party and some of the Minority party (e.g., Bishop Hefele of Rotterdam) at V1, placing the direct consultation of bishops as a condition for the exercise of infallibility was both unnecessary and a practical impossibility,
because (among other reasons)
the Pope can obtain the necessary consensus by consulting other sources aside from the bishops, and some or many bishops could be impeded for whatever reason from communicating with the Pope.
The point is really moot, for according to the historic Proem of
Pastor Aeternus, it is the solicitude of the bishops themselves which activates the EXTRAordinary exercise of infallibility by the Pope. The Pope cannot just wake up one morning and decide to make a dogma. He does so only in response to the appeal of his brother bishops. As the Archbishop of Baltimore explained to his flock after returning from V1, history is the guarantee that the Pope cannot make dogma willy-nilly. He was, of course, referring to the historic Proem, which explains that the Tradition of the Church has been for
the bishops to approach the Roman Pontiff on questions of Faith. From the get-go, the bishops are involved in the papal exercise of infallibility! NOTE: The historic Proem was added to the text of
Pastor Aeternus literally at the last moment – two days before the final voting (IIRC). Everyone understood that the historic Proem was intended as a limitation/condition on the exercise of “papal infallibility.” The addition of the historic Proem caused most
placet juxta modum and several
non placet votes to convert to
placet at the final voting, simultaneously causing several NEO-ultramontanists (the bishops who held an Absolutist Petrine view) to leave the Council in disgust. Just from that incident alone, we know that the Absolutist Petrine view had no place in V1’s teaching on the papacy.
(3) The answer to whether the Pope exercises infallibility apart or separated from the Church is rather plainly obvious from the answer to the previous question – NO!!! The
sensus fidelium, which reflects the infallibility of the Church as a whole, is perpetual. As noted earlier, the
Official Relatio explains that the Pope in general always needs the aid of the Church since the knowledge the Pope requires to exercise his Petrine responsibility can only be acquired by ordinary means. The topic deserves special consideration, since while the previous issue was focused more on the practical dimension of infallibility, the present issue involves a primarily doctrinal matter.
The V1 decree plainly teaches that “papal infallibility” is the selfsame infallibility that God grants to his Church. So from whence comes the Absolutist Petrine pretension (and concurrent Low Petrine misapprehension) that the Pope is separated from the Church during an exercise of infallibility? It is based on a misunderstanding of the V1 statement that the irreformibility of an
ex cathedra decree does not depend on the consensus of the Church. When Absolutist and Low Petrine advocates read that statement, they wrongly interpret the exercise of infallibility itself as the subject of the clause “
not from the consent of the Church.” But a careful and DIRECT reading of the statement reveals that the subject of the clause is, rather, the
irreformibility of the dogma proposed. IOW, the exercise of infallibility has
already occurred, and, as explained in the answers to the two previous questions, the Church was
already involved in the exercise of infallibility. What the statement at issue is saying is nothing more nor less than this - though the consensus of the Church is necessary in the exercise of infallibility, and the Church is thus involved in the Pope’s exercise of infallibility, that consensus/involvement is
NOT what guarantees the Truth or irreformibility of the dogma. Rather, what guarantees its Truth or irreformibility is
the fact of the Holy Spirit’s help based on the promise of Christ to St. Peter. You need to study the background debates/discussions of V1 in order to understand this. The following posts from other threads has dome further info:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7719984&postcount=4
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=8035936&postcount=204
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