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ynotzap
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Amen.The Divine Spirit is in (dwells in) the human Jesus Christ
Amen.The Divine Spirit is in (dwells in) the human Jesus Christ
You took it out of context. Jesus is talking of the power of the Spirit vs human power. And John 1:1-4 speaks of Jesus as the Incarnate Word.In John 6:63 Jesus clearly says that the words of his mouth are Spirit and life. Which is exactly the same as John 1:1-4 says about the word, that word is God and life.
John 6:63 “It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh is of no avail; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.”
And there is clearly a human in the Trinity.
So you deny the divinity of Jesus and take Thomas’ statement out of context.Colossians 1:3 "We always thank God, the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"
John 20:28 “Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!””
Lord = Jesus Christ
God = the Father
John 8:16 "my judgement is valid; for it is not I alone who judge, but I and the Father who sent me. In your law it is written that the testimony of two witnesses is valid"
John 8:29 “he who sent me is with me”
This is what I have been saying the whole time.PNEUMA;13993574:
Amen.The Divine Spirit is in (dwells in) the human Jesus Christ
"We always thank God, the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"PNEUMA;13993630 said:Colossians 1:3
John 20:28 “Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!””
Lord = Jesus Christ
God = the Father
John 8:16 "my judgement is valid; for it is not I alone who judge, but I and the Father who sent me. In your law it is written that the testimony of two witnesses is valid"
John 8:29 *“he who sent me is with me”*So you deny the divinity of Jesus and take Thomas’ statement out of context.![]()
I don’t think anybody has said that Jesus is only spirit - if by ‘spirit’ you mean a bodiless entity. That obviously is a denial of the Incarnation.This is what I have been saying the whole time.
This doesn’t of course make Jesus Christ a spirit, he is a human of flesh and blood.
No, John 1:1-4 clearly says the word is God and life, just as John 6:63 says the word is spirit and life.PNEUMA;13993547:
“It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh is of no avail; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.”In John 6:63 Jesus clearly says that the words of his mouth are Spirit and life. Which is exactly the same as John 1:1-4 says about the word, that word is God and life.
John 6:63
You took it out of context. Jesus is talking of the power of the Spirit vs human power. And John 1:1-4 speaks of Jesus as the Incarnate Word.
Jesus = a human with a holy spirit inside of him, contrary to a human with a unclean spirit inside of him.To be honest I still don’t get clearly your beliefs, but I’m interpreting it like this.
JESUS = ‘Flesh and blood’ (His human body) + ‘Spirit’ (the Father?)
In other words, Jesus the person is made up of a human body, plus the ‘Spirit’ dwelling inside Him. If I’m getting you right, we are to understand this ‘spirit’ inside Him as being the Father or/and the Holy Spirit. In other words:
Is this what you’re saying?
That’s not a denial of the incarnation, that’s a denial of his flesh and blood resurrection.I don’t think anybody has said that Jesus is only spirit - if by ‘spirit’ you mean a bodiless entity. That obviously is a denial of the Incarnation.
That being said, I think you will agree that Jesus is not just flesh and blood either.
Do you accept that Jesus had a human soul (not just a human body), or not?Jesus = a human with a holy spirit inside of him, contrary to a human with a unclean spirit inside of him.
Every human has a soul.Do you accept that Jesus had a human soul (not just a human body), or not?
I don’t see the point in all this, can’t you just accept that the Son is a human with the Holy Spirit (the Father) dwelling in him.Just a quick explanation of the key words used in theology as far as I understand it (if I misstated something please correct me):
Substance / Essence (ousia): The innermost aspect, the “thisness” of a being, what makes something that something and not something else. “All that subsists by itself and which has not its being in another.”
Person / Being (hypostasis): Literally means ‘to stand under’ (hence ‘sub-stance’). Used at the council of Nicaea as a synonym for ousia, but eventually came to mean ‘entity / existence’ or ‘individual, substantive reality’ or even "distinct manner of existing’. It is less abstract than ousia.
‘Person’ (prosopon): More literally means ‘mask’ or ‘face’. In Greek theatre, actors wore masks to reveal their character and emotional state to the audience. By extension, prosopa means the ‘face’, the ‘person’ that we present to others, the concrete form in which the abstact ousia and the underlying hypostasis appears. In other words, someone’s or something’s ‘natural qualities’, ‘condition’, ‘disposition’, or ‘appearance.’
Nature (physis): The most confusing term. One definition of physis is “personal nature,” which puts it in the same category as hypostasis and prosopon. The other definition of it is as a synonym for ousia.
In the case of the Trinity: There is one ousia / physis, but three hypostases (“persons”). The Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are of the same ousia (‘consubstantial’ or ‘co-essential’), but each are His own distinct hypostasis.
In the case of Jesus: There is one hypostasis / prosopon, but two physeis (divine and human), and two wills (thelemata) corresponding to the two physeis.
Nestorius used the former definition of physis; so for him, saying that Jesus had two physeis meant that there are two separate personal natures / persons (the assumed man and the indwelling God the Son) within Jesus. The orthodox interpretation since the council of Chalcedon however is to take physis to mean ‘inner reality’ or ‘nature’, which is why we also say that Jesus had two physeis but reject Nestorius’ definition of the word.
By contrast, St. Cyril of Jerusalem spoke of Jesus having a single physis, but he did not mean it in the Monophysite sense (that Jesus only had one personal nature as opposed to two). Rather, he used physis as a synonym for ousia or hypostasis.
Very good.Every human has a soul.
Because putting it that way is kind of too vague that it’s open to (borderline- or even outright heretical) misinterpretation. Is the Son just a human by nature - one that happened to have God inside Him, but human otherwise? Is Christ’s divinity caused by His body being indwelt by a divine spirit / the divine Spirit?I don’t see the point in all this, can’t you just accept that the Son is a human with the Holy Spirit (the Father) dwelling in him.
It’s not too vague for, I perfectly understand what kind of human I am supposed to be.PNEUMA;13994046:
Because putting it that way is kind of too vague …I don’t see the point in all this, can’t you just accept that the Son is a human with the Holy Spirit (the Father) dwelling in him.
All the others got it. Peter got it. Nathanael got it. Seriously, why must one go by your logic to get it, when it clearly borders on heresy? There is also a stronger case for John being the beloved disciple. Is this one of your fringe theories?No, Thomas is here shown to be the only one who understands. And could as well be the beloved disciple.
In His human nature, but don’t forget that Jesus is God, and God is Pure Spirit in Jesus’ divine nature, you must make this distinction His divinity is united to His humanity, and you must view each nature individually yet united, Jesus is God-man So when you speak of Jesus, your are speaking of the human Jesus, and of the divine Jesus, who is the Son of God, co-equal with the Father, and the Holy Spirit When speaking of Jesus you must necessarily address both natures, they are united in Him, you can not ignore one or the other.This is what I have been saying the whole time.
This doesn’t of course make Jesus Christ a spirit, he is a human of flesh and blood.
The Word is the Son who became incarnate in the womb of Mary. The Word in this context is Jesus.No, John 1:1-4 clearly says the word is God and life, just as John 6:63 says the word is spirit and life.
Salutations.You say that some Biblical passages are figurative and not to be taken literally. But that is the question concerning the gospel of John. Since the gospel was written so many years later than the other three gospels, how do we know that many of the things written in the gospel of John are historically accurate quotations and are not to be taken figuratively? What was the source of the gospel of John, except oral tradition which was handed down year after year by word of mouth?