F
friardchips
Guest
Wasn’t sure where to put this.
This is a reminder for those who are not aware that the Catholic Church considered Our Lady’s sinlessness right back to the earliest centuries.
ewtn.com/faith/teachings/maryc3a.htm
*'Church Fathers:
implicitly found in the Fathers of the Church in the parallelism between Eve and Mary (Irenaeus, Lyons, 140? - 202?);’*
This is very early. Right back in the earliest centuries, the parallel between Eve and Mary was being pondered upon!
‘Found in the more general terms about Mary: “holy”, “innocent”, “most pure”, “intact”, “immaculate” (Irenaeus, Lyons, 140?-202?; Ephraem, Syria, 306-373; Ambrose, Milan, 373-397);’
Here we have her Immaculate state being considered from East to West. Of course, St. Ambrose was a Catholic Bishop of Milan.
‘First explicit language: Mary - free from original sin (Augustine, Hippo, 395-430 to Anselm, Normandy, 1033-1109).’
So, here we have Our Lady being identified explicitly from Scripture as having been free from sin as early as 395-430 in the Catholic Church, by St. Augustine. Who was a Latin Church Father.
‘Eastern Church:
celebrated a Feast of the Conception of Mary in the 8th to the 9th Century’.
I think this feast concetrated largely on St. Anne.
ewtn.com/library/answers/imconcep.htm
Just something to recount so then when people speak of Our Lady they can reflect on how just how long the Church has been pondering upon Our Lady’s immaculate holiness.
And no doubt, the Scripture writers themselves, at least St. Luke and St. John, but possibly all, knew of Our Lady’s Immaculate Conception.
If anyone does pass by and wish to join in, then please can this conversation be carried out with charity and goodwill.
If it is carried out in goodwill then it could be a beautiful discussion.
I am interested in the history of this, it being so important.
This is a reminder for those who are not aware that the Catholic Church considered Our Lady’s sinlessness right back to the earliest centuries.
ewtn.com/faith/teachings/maryc3a.htm
*'Church Fathers:
implicitly found in the Fathers of the Church in the parallelism between Eve and Mary (Irenaeus, Lyons, 140? - 202?);’*
This is very early. Right back in the earliest centuries, the parallel between Eve and Mary was being pondered upon!
‘Found in the more general terms about Mary: “holy”, “innocent”, “most pure”, “intact”, “immaculate” (Irenaeus, Lyons, 140?-202?; Ephraem, Syria, 306-373; Ambrose, Milan, 373-397);’
Here we have her Immaculate state being considered from East to West. Of course, St. Ambrose was a Catholic Bishop of Milan.
‘First explicit language: Mary - free from original sin (Augustine, Hippo, 395-430 to Anselm, Normandy, 1033-1109).’
So, here we have Our Lady being identified explicitly from Scripture as having been free from sin as early as 395-430 in the Catholic Church, by St. Augustine. Who was a Latin Church Father.
‘Eastern Church:
celebrated a Feast of the Conception of Mary in the 8th to the 9th Century’.
I think this feast concetrated largely on St. Anne.
ewtn.com/library/answers/imconcep.htm
- this link speaks of the battle for clarity on the subject.
Just something to recount so then when people speak of Our Lady they can reflect on how just how long the Church has been pondering upon Our Lady’s immaculate holiness.
And no doubt, the Scripture writers themselves, at least St. Luke and St. John, but possibly all, knew of Our Lady’s Immaculate Conception.
If anyone does pass by and wish to join in, then please can this conversation be carried out with charity and goodwill.
If it is carried out in goodwill then it could be a beautiful discussion.
I am interested in the history of this, it being so important.
