P
Paul_theApostle
Guest
The Orthodox add the use of Unleavened bread by the Latins as one of the innovations that further seperate Rome from Orthodoxy.The Council of Florence approved the use of either kind of bread in 1439, so the use of leavened or unleavened bread is a question of licit-ness, not validity.
The council stated, “We have likewise defined that the body of Christ is truly effected in unleavened or leavened wheaten bread and that priests ought to effect the body of our Lord in either one of these, and each one namely according to the custom of his Church, whether that of the West or of the East”
To use the driving analogy, it is the law of driving on the right side of the road (law), not the practice of driving at all (valid).
Latin Rite is not permitted to use unleavened bread by its Canon Law, but if a Latin priest use leavened bread it’s still transsubstantiated to the Holy Eucharist, although he may get reprimanded for ignoring the Canon Law.
The Eastern Rite and Orthodox have their own Law and they use leavened bread.
Is that all you have objection for? Leavened or unleavened bread? Both are still bread taht is made from wheat and flour and Wheat-bread that was use for the Last Supper. Whether leavened or unleavened does not change the validity of the Holy Eucharist. Do you believe in and accept doctrine of the Real Presence? If so, observe your liturgical law according to your rite (whichever it may be). If not, why fuss about leavened or unleavened when you do not even care.
The Orthodox also do not recognise the Sacrament of Holy Communion as well as the other Sacraments of Rome.
Ive been a part of both Churches,i do feel ive experienced Gods presence in the Eucharist at Rome,but i am prone also to following the Orthodox position that the Sacraments of Rome are In-valid.
Maybe the Orthodox do accept the Sacraments of Rome nowadays im not sure,i know they have agreed on Statements of Faith in our days,
But as a person who was Baptised and Chrismated by the Orthodox after recieving it firstly at Rome and having seen it done to many other Catholics at the Orthodox Church,i have the tendency to believe that the Orthodox Church doesnt believe that the Sacraments of Rome have any meaning or effect to the people.
If when confirmed at Rome a person does actually recieve the Gift of the Holy Spirit,why would the Orthodox Church perform Chrismation again to Grant that soul something it already had recieved?