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dustdev14
Guest
Hi everyone.
To put it simply, I don’t see how psalms can have anything to do with Him other than how they reference God. The psalm I’ve personally heard the most often when discussing how the psalms are tied to Jesus is psalm 22. This Psalm is (from what I’ve heard) meant to describe the crucifixion of Christ. Now I’ll admit reading this psalm, it has a lot of similarities to the crucifixion. 22:14-15 is pretty spot on to how Jesus would’ve died from what I’ve heard, with His shoulders and arms dislocating and a possible buildup of CO2 “melting” His heart in a sense. However, why does this have to related to Jesus? I almost always hear that when Jesus did a certain thing or something happened to Him, it happened to “fulfill” a psalm. But the psalms aren’t prophesies, but are instead a book of prayers hymns written by the ancient Hebrews. The psalms don’t say “the messiah will do this” they simply use pronouns that (from what I’ve seen) always reflect a first-person and present tone of voice. “MY bones ARE out of joint” “MY heart IS like wax” yet many people say that Jesus has to “fulfill” these psalms. How does that make sense when they aren’t even meant to be prophesies?
Many thanks, Kaden
To put it simply, I don’t see how psalms can have anything to do with Him other than how they reference God. The psalm I’ve personally heard the most often when discussing how the psalms are tied to Jesus is psalm 22. This Psalm is (from what I’ve heard) meant to describe the crucifixion of Christ. Now I’ll admit reading this psalm, it has a lot of similarities to the crucifixion. 22:14-15 is pretty spot on to how Jesus would’ve died from what I’ve heard, with His shoulders and arms dislocating and a possible buildup of CO2 “melting” His heart in a sense. However, why does this have to related to Jesus? I almost always hear that when Jesus did a certain thing or something happened to Him, it happened to “fulfill” a psalm. But the psalms aren’t prophesies, but are instead a book of prayers hymns written by the ancient Hebrews. The psalms don’t say “the messiah will do this” they simply use pronouns that (from what I’ve seen) always reflect a first-person and present tone of voice. “MY bones ARE out of joint” “MY heart IS like wax” yet many people say that Jesus has to “fulfill” these psalms. How does that make sense when they aren’t even meant to be prophesies?
Many thanks, Kaden