cont.
Don’t get thrown off because the word Purgatory is not found in Sacred Scripture, neither is Trinity and Incarnation. The Bible teaches that an intermediate state of purificatioin exists. We call it Purgatory. What is important is the doctrine, not the name.
Matthew 12:32 - Jesus implies that some sins can be forgiven in the next world. Sin cannot be forgiven in hell. There is not sin to be forgiven in heaven. Any remission of sin in the next world can only occur in Purgatory.
1 Corinthians 3:15 - This cannot refer to eternal loss in hell, for there no one is saved. Nor can it refer to heaven, for there no one suffers. It refers, then, to a middle stae where the soul temporarily suffers loss so that it may gain heaven. This is essentially the definition of Purgatory.
1 Peter 3:18-20
1 Peter 4:6
Note, that it is a prison for disobedient spirits, and yet they were saved when Jesus preached to them. This is not hell, because no one is saved from hell. This is probably not the “limbo of the fathers,” (often called “Abraham’s bosom,” where the righteous sould of the OT waited until Christ opened the gates of heaven), because this is a place for disobedient spirits. One cannot imagine that St. Peter is describing the waiting place of such righteous OT saints as David and John the Baptist when he mentions disobedience spirits.
St. Peter is describing a temporary state for disobedient sould who were eventually saved. At the very least, it proves that a third place can exist between heaven and hell. At the very most, it proves the Catholic doctrine of Purgatory.
The clearest affirmation of the existence of Purgatory comes from the Greek Septuagine: the Old Testament Scriptures used by Christ, all the NT writers, and the councils of Hippo and Carthage (which authoritatively determined the “canon” of inspired books of the Bible.
Do you have 2 Maccabees in your Bible? Read 2 Maccabees 12:42-45. Judas took up a collection…sent it to Jersalem to privide for a sin offering…taking in account of the resurrection. Therefore he made atonement for the dead, that they might be delivered from their sin. This passage proves the distinction between mortal and venial sin. …fell asleep in godliness… They sinned, but still died in godliness, so their sin had to be non-mortal, or venial. Venial sin is forgivable after death. It also proves the existence of a middle state where venial sins can be forgiven. Souls in heaven have no need. Souls in hell have no hope. Praying for the dead presumes souls in the middle state where venial sins can be forgiven and atonement can be made.
This particular passage is a proof text. It explicitly affirms an intermediate state where the faithful departed make atonement for their non-mortal sins. Martin Luther’s reaction demonstrates the strength of this passage. It was so contrary to his “justification by faith alone” theology that he removed 2 Maccabees, along with six other books from his Old Testament.
Do we rely on the private judgment of Luther, who also wanted to throw out Ester, James and Revelation, and thought nothing of adding the word “alone” to his translation of Romas 3:28? Or, do we accept the divinely protected judgment of the CC who used her authority in 397AD to determine the official canon of the Bible? This is the same Bible, minus the seven books removed by Luther) Protestants use to attack the very authority of the Church who gave it to them.
Even if one rejects 2 Maccabees as Scripture, there can be no doubt that, as history, the book acurately reflects the religious character of the Jews of the second century BC. A little more than one hundred years before Christ. Jews prayed for their dead (and still do to this day).
Some of the earliest Christian liturgies ( worship services) include prayers for the dead. Ancient Christian tomb inscriptions from the second and third centuries frequently contain an appeal for prayers for the dead (Abercius). This practice makes sense only if early Christians believed in Purgatory even if they did not use that name for it.