How can Peter have "the keys" if Rev 3:7 says someone else has them?

[homesower]

Matthew 16:9 is used to justify papal supremacy. Here Peter is given the keys of the kingdom of heaven.

How does this compare with Revelation 3:7 where it says “And to the angel of the church in Philadelphia write; These things saith he that is holy, he that is true, he that hath the key of David, he that openeth, and no man shutteth; and shutteth, and no man openeth;”

Are these the same keys? If the bishop in Philadelphia has these keys does this suggest the church is interpreting Matthew 16:9 incorrectly?

I am confused.

I am a candidate to join the church and I find myself having to defend a lot of things about the church that aren’t yet clear to me.

 

[Karlo_Broussard]

First, “the key of David” in Revelation 3:7 and “the keys of the kingdom” in Matthew 16:19 could be identified as the same but with different wording.

They both signify royal authority. In Revelation 3:7, it is Jesus who possesses “the key of David.” This is obvious sense he is the true Davidic King. In Matthew 16:19, Jesus, as King, delegates his royal authority to Peter. Consequently, he uses the imagery of “the keys of the kingdom” to signify such authority.

Jesus is the King and Peter is his Royal Steward.