…Interestingly, the English, as you have presented above, does not treat the future tense very well. As you have pointed out previously, English is too poor to allow the full sense of the future tense of “to be,” as it appears classically. So, then, the question, indeed, becomes why “be” and not “become”?
I believe the answer lies in the poverty of language.
If the English translations were to use “become,” it would limit the possibility of active grace at work. It would require an exclusivity and particularity which the Greek does not.
We use “be” because it, grammatically or not, best allows the fullest sense of Christ’s command and prophetic injunction.
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I see that i am in the presence of someone who understands grammar (both Greek and English) far better than i. I must admit, as i blush, that i do not quite grasp what you say. Since you are a teacher of those who watch Blues Clues, however, i trust you will be able to talk down to my level. Will you please explain, perhaps by way of an example or two, why be is a more accurate English word to use than become?
I believe that what you are saying is correct that be is a more accurate word to use than become in Matthew 5:48. In fact, i’m confident this is the case because different methods of translating the Bible result in the same choice of words for this verse.
I know that there are translations of the Bible that have the goal of being true to every word, and so attempt to translate every Greek word in the New Testament to its exact English counterpart. The
New American Standard Bible, for example, is one, and it translates the text this way:
"Therefore you are to be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect."Then there are those Bibles that are not word-for-word translations, rather, they are
thought-for-thought translations. These translations take certain liberties with the words and choose a different word if it results in a better understanding of the passage. The
New International Version is one, and it translates the text this way:
"Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect."While i can understand the NASB not choosing become, even if the meaning of the passage suffers, i cannot understand the NIV doing the same. If “become perfect as your Father in heaven is perfect” gave a more accurate meaning of the passage, then the translators of such a though-for-thought translation would have chosen this word.
So, yes, i agree with you that be is the correct word to use, and even the Roman Catholic
New American Bible renders the passage:
"So
be perfect, just as your heavenly Father is perfect."Still, i would very much like to understand what you meant by saying:
*If the English translations were to use “become,” it would limit the possibility of active grace at work. …**We use “be” because it, grammatically or not, best allows the fullest sense of Christ’s command and prophetic injunction.*Specifically, what is the fullest sense of Christ’s command to “be as perfect as God”? and can you explain by way of an example, or two examples, so that this immature mind of mine might begin to see what you see?