How could Mary have died and been the Immaculate Conception?

[Joab_Anias]

This question has been with me for several years without ever finding a satisfactory answer.

Given that its first of all acceptable to believe Mary did in fact die which I believe it is acceptable and that its likely that she did in fact die.

How could she have been subject to death and free of Original Sin at the same time?

I thought I had this reconciled with some work of theologians ( I cannot relocate) in Rome where I am sure I read described that she may have been preserved from the “stain” or original sin but still have suffered the “temporal” effects.

Recently in discussion with some friends I am left wondering if even this was possible and even if I may be asking to many un-important questions as they say Mary retaining the temporal effects of OS is error. I cannot find anything to support or contradict.

What is the best way for a practical Catholic to reconcile the dogma of the Immaculate Conception with Original Sin and the plausibility of Mary’s death, Dormitian and Assumption?

Am I in error to believe Mary did die?
Am I in error to think she could have retained the temporal effect of OS?
Am I in error to ask this question?

Thank you in advance.

 

[Fr.Vincent_Serpa]

Hi,

We actually don’t know if Mary died. She may have or not. In any case, she was assumed into heaven. What is a problem for you and some theologians is not too difficult for God. He is the one who makes the rules and He can make exceptions. Jesus was also born without original sin and He died.

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.