F
Fleeting_Shadow
Guest
Since my reversion about a year ago I’ve come to terms with aspects of the faith that previously troubled me. For example, I see there is no conflict between the reality of biological evolution on the one hand and the scriptural creation narrative properly understood, on the other. I’m even willing to assent (and I never thought I’d say this) to the traditional teaching that the ‘Adam’ and ‘Eve’ figures refer to the first human beings properly understood (they possessed the imago Dei) and that Genesis 2 is historical, albeit presented in a certain literary form.
But I’ve hit a something of a stumbling block… The teaching that original sin brought death into the world is one I’ve always interpreted as refering solely to spiritual death. But it seems that Church teaching is in fact that there would have been no physical death without original sin! This is flatly contradicted by our knowledge of human biology.
There is definitely an ontological discontinuity between human beings and animals. This is spiritual. But is it not accepted that our material bodies are subject to the same laws as those of our biological ancestors, i.e. death?
I’m a little sheepish asking about this. Maybe I’m interpreting it all far too literalistically - but I don’t think so. The idea is confirmed in the Catholic study Bible I use, in the writings of Augustine, etc.
Could someone please clarify or explain?
But I’ve hit a something of a stumbling block… The teaching that original sin brought death into the world is one I’ve always interpreted as refering solely to spiritual death. But it seems that Church teaching is in fact that there would have been no physical death without original sin! This is flatly contradicted by our knowledge of human biology.
There is definitely an ontological discontinuity between human beings and animals. This is spiritual. But is it not accepted that our material bodies are subject to the same laws as those of our biological ancestors, i.e. death?
I’m a little sheepish asking about this. Maybe I’m interpreting it all far too literalistically - but I don’t think so. The idea is confirmed in the Catholic study Bible I use, in the writings of Augustine, etc.
Could someone please clarify or explain?