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NowHereThis
Guest
As I understand it (and feel free to correct me, especially with links to sources), God gives everyone grace sufficient to overcome the stain of sin on their wills. This makes it possible for them to accept the offer of forgiveness through the sacrifice of Jesus Christ. So once grace is applied, sin is no longer an obstacle, and the way to fully embracing the love of God is open.
So if all that is the case, why would anyone reject God? Sin can’t be the answer, can it, since God’s grace nullifies that? It seems like anyone who isn’t insane would accept infinite love if it is offered to them. And if a large portion of the human race is insane, even after the application of grace, aren’t we incapable of wielding free will? It’s like letting a child drive your car and acting stunned when they crash it repeatedly.
Does God just not give some people enough grace to fully remove the stain from their wills (or perhaps some get no grace at all)? God would know through his omniscience how much grace was needed, and so if not enough grace was given, that can only mean that God didn’t really want that person to be saved.
How can this state of affairs be explained?
So if all that is the case, why would anyone reject God? Sin can’t be the answer, can it, since God’s grace nullifies that? It seems like anyone who isn’t insane would accept infinite love if it is offered to them. And if a large portion of the human race is insane, even after the application of grace, aren’t we incapable of wielding free will? It’s like letting a child drive your car and acting stunned when they crash it repeatedly.
Does God just not give some people enough grace to fully remove the stain from their wills (or perhaps some get no grace at all)? God would know through his omniscience how much grace was needed, and so if not enough grace was given, that can only mean that God didn’t really want that person to be saved.
How can this state of affairs be explained?