How Could St. Peter Be The First Pope If

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I was wondering how could St. Peter be the first pope if he was married? In the Gospel of St. Matthew it says that Jesus healed his mother-in-law at the family home in Gallilee. I was just curious. Do we have any further resources about St. Peter’s life?
 
I was wondering how could St. Peter be the first pope if he was married? In the Gospel of St. Matthew it says that Jesus healed his mother-in-law at the family home in Gallilee. I was just curious. Do we have any further resources about St. Peter’s life?
There is no theological reason why priests and bishops, including the pope, cannot be married. In the early centuries of the Church, they often were. For well over a thousand years, though, the Church has voluntarily adopted clerical celibacy as a discipline. The Catholic Encyclopedia article on Clerical Celibacy explains it pretty well.

It is easy to get confused when people in the media talk in terms of, you know, “Liberal Catholics who favor married and women priests in the Catholic Church,” as though these were theologically equivalent in any way. The Church has no power whatsoever to ordain women, but it could start ordaining married men and appointing them bishop tomorrow, if it wanted. Whether or not that would be a good idea (I think it would be a terrible idea), it is at least up for legitimate debate, because there is nothing in dogma that prevents it.
 
There is also the possibility that Peter’s wife had died some time in the past.
 
I was wondering how could St. Peter be the first pope if he was married? In the Gospel of St. Matthew it says that Jesus healed his mother-in-law at the family home in Gallilee. I was just curious. Do we have any further resources about St. Peter’s life?
For the first several centuries, there was no proabition for the clergy to be married. Celbreant clergy was set in place I believe at the time of the refermation. It is still a displinary level of law and could be ended with a stroke of the pen by the pope.
 
Celbreant clergy was set in place I believe at the time of the refermation.
From Celibacy and the Priesthood:
Although most people are at some point in their lives called to the married state, the vocation of celibacy is explicitly advocated—as well as practiced—by both Jesus and Paul.

So far from “commanding” marriage in 1 Corinthians 7, in that very chapter Paul actually endorses celibacy for those capable of it: “To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is well for them to remain single as I am. But if they cannot exercise self-control, they should marry. For it is better to marry than to be aflame with passion” (7:8-9).

It is only because of this “temptation to immorality” (7:2) that Paul gives the teaching about each man and woman having a spouse and giving each other their “conjugal rights” (7:3); he specifically clarifies, “I say this by way of concession, not of command. I wish that all were as I myself am. But each has his own special gift from God, one of one kind and one of another” (7:6-7, emphasis added).

Paul even goes on to make a case for preferring celibacy to marriage: “Are you free from a wife? Do not seek marriage. . . those who marry will have worldly troubles, and I would spare you that. . . . The unmarried man is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to please the Lord; but the married man is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please his wife, and his interests are divided. And the unmarried woman or girl is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to be holy in body and spirit; but the married woman is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please her husband” (7:27-34).

Paul’s conclusion: He who marries “does well; and he who refrains from marriage will do better” (7:38).

Paul was not the first apostle to conclude that celibacy is, in some sense, “better” than marriage. After Jesus’ teaching in Matthew 19 on divorce and remarriage, the disciples exclaimed, “If such is the case between a man and his wife, it is better not to marry” (Matt 19:10). This remark prompted Jesus’ teaching on the value of celibacy “for the sake of the kingdom”:

“Not all can accept this word, but only those to whom it is granted. Some are incapable of marriage because they were born so; some, because they were made so by others; some, because they have renounced marriage for the sake of the kingdom of God. Whoever can accept this ought to accept it” (Matt. 19:11–12).

Notice that this sort of celibacy “for the sake of the kingdom” is a gift, a call that is not granted to all, or even most people, but is granted to some. Other people are called to marriage. It is true that too often individuals in both vocations fall short of the requirements of their state, but this does not diminish either vocation, nor does it mean that the individuals in question were “not really called” to that vocation. The sin of a priest doesn’t necessarily prove that he never should have taken a vow of celibacy, any more than the sin of a married man or woman proves that he or she never should have gotten married. It is possible for us to fall short of our own true calling.

Celibacy is neither unnatural nor unbiblical. “Be fruitful and multiply” is not binding upon every individual; rather, it is a general precept for the human race. Otherwise, every unmarried man and woman of marrying age would be in a state of sin by remaining single, and Jesus and Paul would be guilty of advocating sin as well as committing it.
 
Popes Siricius and Adrian II may have been married during their pontificates. More Popes have been widowers though, and who’s to say that Peter’s wife was still alive upon being made the first Pope?
 
Thank you everyone for your replies, it puts my mind at ease. 😃 I had no clue that celebacy wasn’t practiced at the beginning. You learn something new everyday 🙂
 
Thank you everyone for your replies, it puts my mind at ease. 😃 I had no clue that celebacy wasn’t practiced at the beginning. You learn something new everyday 🙂
But you can be married and be celibate.
“…Some ancient writings suggest that not only the Apostles lived celibate lives following their call, but this was true of the early priests and bishops as well, once ordained for service in the Church. Assuming this, one can see the value of ordaining only unmarried men, who can embrace celibacy without disruption to marital relations and family life. ©”
ewtn.com/vexperts/showresult.asp?RecNum=489266&Forums=0&Experts=0&Days=2006&Author=&Keyword=apostles+were+married&pgnu=1&groupnum=0&record_bookmark=1&ORDER_BY_TXT=ORDER+BY+ReplyDate+DESC&start_at=
 
For the first several centuries, there was no prohibition for the clergy to be married. Celibate clergy was set in place I believe at the time of the reformation. It is still a disciplinary level of law and could be ended with a stroke of the pen by the pope.
No, it was the normal practice long before that, in fact right back to the second century, although as you say, being a disciplinary measure, there were local variations. But whenever the discipline of the Church became low, the clergy began to take wives (not to mention mistresses). The 10th century was notorious. The modern popes are to be congratulated on not giving in to the current mood among the ‘married clergy’ lobby, enthusiastically taken up by the mass media.
 
As a matter of fact, clerical celibacy is an ordinance. It’s not a matter of faith or morals that can never be changed and is true for all times. The Church requires celibacy on priests as a way of following in the footsteps of Christ who himself is celibate. The pope however may change this and allow priests to marry.

Also, I think men who were married but are now widowers may still be ordained into the priesthood. I think this is called late vocations. But men who are already ordained as priests are no longer allowed to marry even if they leave the priesthood because once a priest, always a priest.
 
But men who are already ordained as priests are no longer allowed to marry even if they leave the priesthood because once a priest, always a priest.
Actually, when a priest is laicized, i.e. dismissed from the clerical state through a formal process, he is usually freed from his priestly obligations including the obligation to remain celibate and thus would be allowed to marry.
But men who are already ordained as priests are no longer allowed to marry even if they leave the priesthood because once a priest, always a priest.
Quite true. You might say they still have all the powers of the priesthood but not the permission to use them other than to grant absolution in the case of a grave emergency.
 
Priests are allowed to marry in the eastern rite of the church. Also, married Anglican priests who convert and are ordained as catholic priests are (of course) allowed to remain married.
 
Priests are allowed to marry in the eastern rite of the church. Also, married Anglican priests who convert and are ordained as catholic priests are (of course) allowed to remain married.
Actually, no. Priests are never allowed to marry. Neither are Deacons nor Bishops. Once Ordination has been received, marriage is off the table. So Byzantine Rite seminarians get married before they are ordained Deacons.
 
Tradition has it that they were martyred at the same time.
That’s not what I was taught. I learned that Peter’s wife was dead at the time of the healing because, according to Jewish custom, if she was alive, it would have been her duty to wait on them. Only if she was not around would the duty then fall back on her mother.
 
That’s not what I was taught. I learned that Peter’s wife was dead at the time of the healing because, according to Jewish custom, if she was alive, it would have been her duty to wait on them. Only if she was not around would the duty then fall back on her mother.
Simon settled in Capharnaum, where he was living with his mother-in-law in his own house (Matthew 8:14; Luke 4:38) at the beginning of Christ’s public ministry (about A.D. 26-28). Simon was thus married, and, according to Clement of Alexandria (Stromata, III, vi, ed. Dindorf, II, 276), had children. The same writer relates the tradition that Peter’s wife suffered martyrdom (ibid., VII, xi ed. cit., III, 306). Concerning these facts, adopted by Eusebius (Church History III.31) from Clement, the ancient Christian literature which has come down to us is silent. Simon pursued in Capharnaum the profitable occupation of fisherman in Lake Genesareth, possessing his own boat (Luke 5:3).
newadvent.org/cathen/11744a.htm
 
Actually, when a priest is laicized, i.e. dismissed from the clerical state through a formal process, he is usually freed from his priestly obligations including the obligation to remain celibate and thus would be allowed to marry.

Quite true. You might say they still have all the powers of the priesthood but not the permission to use them other than to grant absolution in the case of a grave emergency.
Yes, when a priest leaves his office, the grace of the Holy Spirit that was imparted upon him is not lost but his faculty is actually removed. For example, if he celebrates a Mass, this Mass is still a valid mass since he is an ordained priest but it is an illicit mass. He is however able to grant the sacrament of Anointing the Sick to those who are in danger of death.
 
“This writer” APPEARS to have made the same ASSUMPTION that was made in this thread …

Simon settled in Capharnaum, where he was living with his mother-in-law in his own house Simon was thus married.

… As was pointed out above, just because he had a mother-in-law, does not automatically mean that he also had a wife. As many scholars have pointed out …

It is peculiar that although the wife would ordinarily have cared for the needs of guests, Peter had to rely upon his wife’s mother.

… Either he was widowed or his household did not keep with their traditions – which, by all other indications would appear to contradict that conclusion. It would be most strange that Peter would have been a devote Jew in all areas except for this one. But I guess that it might be possible,
 
There is also the possibility that Peter’s wife had died some time in the past.
That’s also a possibility cited by some scholars.

First, since it is stated that Peter has a mother-in-law, she must also have a wife. But then again, her wife is not mentioned in that biblical verse attending to her mother. But surely if the wife were available, she would have surely been present taking care of her mother. So the greatest probability is that Peter must have been a widower at the time.
 
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