How did the just of the Old Testament justified from their original sin?

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Pope Innocent III, Maiores Ecclesiae causas [a letter], 1201: “Although original sin was remitted by the mystery of circumcision, and the danger of damnation was avoided, nevertheless there was no arriving at the kingdom of heaven, which up to the death of Christ was barred to all.”

Pope Innocent’s understanding was proved erroneous by this infallible statement:

Pope Eugene IV, Council of Florence, “Exultate Deo,” 1439: “There are seven sacraments of the new Law… which differ a great deal from the sacraments of the Old Law. For those of the Old Law did not effect grace, but only pronounced that it should be given through the passion of Christ; these sacraments of ours contain grace, and confer it upon those who receive them worthily.” (D. 695)
 
The Grace of Christ and his death on the cross flow backwards and forwards in time (as God is not restricted by time), affecting whom he will.
 
The two pronouncements do not conflict with each other.
But I wish to be clarified of what you understand by "justified from their original sin".
 
The two pronouncements do not conflict with each other.
But I wish to be clarified of what you understand by "justified from their original sin".
I mean forgiven their original sin. In the New Law we get forgiven our original sin by baptism, but I don’t know how it was in the Old Law.
 
The same way we are: by believing in the mercy and forgiveness of God through the Messiah.

Matthew
 
Perhaps when Jesus freed them from the limbo of the fathers–

1Peter 3:19-21 “In which also coming he preached to those spirits that were in prison: Which had been some time incredulous, when they waited for the patience of God in the days of Noe, when the ark was a building: wherein a few, that is, eight souls, were saved by water. Whereunto baptism being of the like form, now saveth you also: not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the examination of a good conscience towards God by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”

–a baptism of desire occured. But since we aren’t in that special of a one-time circumstance we must follow the accepted and ordained method. 🤷

I’m just going of the top of my head, anyone please correct me if I’m way off.
 
Perhaps when Jesus freed them from the limbo of the fathers–

1Peter 3:19-21 “In which also coming he preached to those spirits that were in prison: Which had been some time incredulous, when they waited for the patience of God in the days of Noe, when the ark was a building: wherein a few, that is, eight souls, were saved by water. Whereunto baptism being of the like form, now saveth you also: not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the examination of a good conscience towards God by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”

–a baptism of desire occured. But since we aren’t in that special of a one-time circumstance we must follow the accepted and ordained method. 🤷

I’m just going of the top of my head, anyone please correct me if I’m way off.
I think that you are right. When Christ died and descended into Hell or Limbo of the just, those souls had the opportunity to rec eive Him as what He was. I imagine that some did amd some did not, just the same as some accept Him today and others reject Him. It is completely up to us and I’m sure it was completely up to them.
 
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