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Church_Militant
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One could ( I suppose) attempt to make any interpretation one wanted. However, the person that attempts to use tis verse to oppose the Trinity is refuting himself as I pointed out back in post 86 when I posted.I thought I had already commented on this in Deut. but maybe it was on another thread.
In any event it is also one of the verses some use in order to reject the Trinity. It can mean a few different things. One could say that it proves there is only one God, not three; one could say it proves that Jesus is not God (remember that at that time this was said, no one knew of Jesus).
Those who reject the Trinity will often point out this verse as a proof text which on its face is pretty convincing…until one looks into the Hebrew that this comes from.
The Hebrew word “echad” is used there for “one” and it is important to note what this word means. It is also used in Genesis 2:24 where it says
The fact is that the one means “one unity” which, although it doesn’t prove the Trinity, certainly disqualifies the Sh’ma as a counter argument.Wherefore a man shall leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they shall be two in one flesh.
good? none is good, save one, that is, God.Here, it’s pretty obvious that Jesus is inferring that He is divine.And then again in Luke 18:19, And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me
Probably because only heretics have historically opposed the Trinity and the church has unfailingly defined and defended it, even as they do today.So this is one of those verses many of you do not believe can be interpreted, except by the church, so why then do you attempt to use it to show that there is a Trinity?
The idea that the Church is the only authoritative source of interpretation is irrelevant to this topic, so I’ll ignore that comment.
This is wrong.But on a side note, remember that God is not alone. He has angels, archangels, the Holy Spirit, etc. So it proves nothing to show that He said, “Let us.”
Since God is here literally saying. “…Let us make man in our image and likeness:…” He is discussing the act of creation and and since none but God can create then that means He was not speaking to angels etc.
The fact that St. John clarifies that for us with regard to Jesus when he writes. [1] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[2] He was in the beginning with God;
[3] all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made. The context outright tells us that St. John is speaking of Jesus.
Since you have already acknowledged the Holy Spirit (indicating that at least you accept a plurality of persons sharing the same divine nature), you now have a case for the Trinity made from the Word of God.