J
JulieAA
Guest
Could someone please clarify this for me? When Peter had said that “all have sinned and have fallen short”, why did he not exclude Mary from this statement. If ALL have sinned, that would mean that there was no Immaculate Conception. I do understand that the Immaculate Conception is Dogma in the Catholic Church. How do I explain this to my protestant friends when they ask me exactly where in Scripture could this be found. They are looking at this statement as something that the Pope (who I do believe is infallable in the Dogma of the Church) decided to make Dogma. Unless they are followers of the Catholic church, I see no way to address this to a protestant. Can you help me explain this to them without sounding as if I am just quoting what the Pope said. God bless!!