M
mercytruth
Guest
The Septuagint was quoted by the writers of the NT most of the time in the 1st century. The early church fathers quoted the Septuagint most of the time in the first three centuries. To say that the Septuagint is from the 4th-5th century AD is absolutely incorrect.I’m going to try and combine a number of posts into one for the sake of brevity (although it won’t be that brief). You probably won’t like it, but I would be happy to hear your response.
The entire Septuagint was written over the course of hundreds of years- obviously by many different people. It even includes books that are neither part of the Jewish Bible not the Christian Bible. The two earliest known manuscripts contain only fragments, and nothing more. Relatively complete manuscripts of the Septuagint date from the 4th and 5th centuries of the common era, and the oldest complete copy that is extant dates from 600 years later- from the first half of the 10th century. It is also a fact that the texts of different copies differ, and none of these “late” extant copies are from Jewish scribes, who were always absolutely meticulous- and literate; to the point of knowing the entire text by heart; and their work is always checked by someone else even more experienced.
As I have mentioned, for Jews, each single letter of the Torah is important- to the point that an omission of a single letter invalidates an entire Torah scroll- and there are 304,805 letters in the Torah. Unlike the texts that you use, there is absolute linguistic consistency throughout, and unlike your copies (or copies of copies) it is in the original language as well.
I wanted to find a short article for you about your own texts- that encapsulates many of the ideas that we are discussing. This one seemed to fit the bill, quoting extensively from a New Testament scholar and professor:
leveltruth.com/articles/pamphlets/A4/The%20New%20Testament.pdf
A serious question for you: At the Council of Trent, The Vulgate was affirmed to be the authoritative version of the Christian Bible. If the Pope is infallible, as you believe, and clearly the Vulgate isn’t, how does that work out? Isn’t there something wrong with this picture?
As to the Dead Sea Scrolls, they were written by an extreme ascetic sect, the Essenes, that removed themselves both physically as well as spiritually from the rest of the Jews- and everybody else. If you haven’t visited Qumran, I highly suggest that you do. Then you’ll definitely get a better picture of who they are. I think of David Koresh or one of that type of sect when I think of them. The Dead Sea scrolls, like the Septuagint, contain many books (or manuscripts). Many of them aren’t in either of our Bibles, but they clearly considered them to be holy. So just I wouldn’t rely on the Branch Davidians or others like them to be the transmitters of truth and accuracy, I wouldn’t rely on the Essenes either.
As to Psalm 145 and the seemingly-missing verse, it isn’t that it is just “missing from the Aleppo Codex” or the Masoretic text. In fact, there is a discussion about it in the Gemara (Talmud), and a statement by Rabbi Johanan Ha-Nappah (3rd century CE) about that!
It couldn’t have possibly have been a Jewish copyist’s error because there were so many and they were so meticulous, and it couldn’t possibly have been purposely left out, lest people interpret it incorrectly referring to Jesus, because as we see, there are a whole host of verses that you think apply to him. Others would have been left out as well.
But they weren’t- because each word- each letter, is holy to us.
And the fact is that even the Dead Sea Scrolls version of the verse is different than your verse.
Even more than that: No such verse is found in other important ancient translations from the Hebrew - the Aramaic Targum, the Greek versions of Aquila, Symmachus, and Theodotion - nor is such a verse quoted anywhere in the Talmud.
And by the way, Psalms 25 and 34: They also follow the alphabet- but not 100%.
After this, I hope I don’t get tossed and we can still remain friends.
The Orthodox Church has been using the Septuagint since the 1st Century. I have respect for my Orthodox brothers, regardless of the fact that I am Roman Catholic.
The Septuagint was translated into Greek by Jewish scribes in the 2nd-3rd Century BC. Josephus and Philo of the first century acknowleged the authenticity of the Septuagint.
Therefore, it is disingenuous by Jewish scholars to maintain that their Masoretic text is superior to the Septuagint. It is disingenuous to maintain that we of the Christian faith have no validity in proclaiming the virgin birth of Messiah as taken from the Septuagint version of Isaih 7:14.
The Hebrew Dead Sea Scrolls are an older version than the Masoretic text, and the Septuagint has more similarity to the older Hebrew texts, than the Masoretic. After all, the older Hebrew text is what was used by the Jewish scribes to translate the Tanakh into the Greek Septuagint.
The Ethiopian Jews use the Septuagint version of the Tanakh to this day, and it includes the extra canonical books that are found in the Septuagint, but are not found in the more recent Masoretic text. Are you going to disenfranchise the legitimacy of your Ethiopian Jewish brethren because they have been using the Septuagint for a longer period of time than the Masoretic texts have been in existence?
I think all of us need to eat a little humble pie, and acknowlege our biases, and acknowlege that we can all learn something from each other.
shalom
micah