How do languages and translations through time impact our understanding of the gospels?

[CenturionSlave]

I’ve come to understand that Jesus’ “earthly language” was Aramaic. But most early translations were in Greek, I think. And when issues of “understanding” become problematic, it seems to revolve around the transition to that language and subsequent languages. I’m thinking of the controversial Matthew 16:18 (Peter—Petros, Petra (greek) gender argument and Kephus or Cephas (Aramaic).

So, were all the gospels first written in Greek? And did translating from the spoken Aramaic to the Greek compromise meaning/ understanding? I ask because there are other instances that can be/ are influenced via Greek. I’m thinking of John 21:15-19 (Love (agapao, phileo) but I don’t know the Aramaic for love). How my understanding it (the passage) is so heavily influenced by the change of Greek terms in the passage (unconditional love, brotherly love) yet I’m curious about the Aramaic term and its subsequent understanding.
Also, in the Bread of Life Discourse John 6:48-59 (the verb eat—trogo, esthio (greek) change in meaning from common eating to gnawing. Again, I’m curious of the Aramaic and its meaning.

I’m guessing the commonly spoken language of the time (what? 80 AD -180 AD?) was Greek and I recognize that the writing styles of the authors have some additional influence but that is not what I’m asking about.
Thanks in advance for commenting, C.S.

 

[BlackFriar]

Whats more we dont even have the original manuscripts. So theres the further problem of Chinese whisper distortions.
Then there is the problem that Koine Greek is quite different from modern Greek.

Thank God we have tradition and the Magisterium unlike Protestants.