M
mcq72
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Correct…that is why Jesus talked about as if a Jewish leader should know about it.I think you are saying that people were “born again” prior to Jesus talking about it.
Correct…that is why Jesus talked about as if a Jewish leader should know about it.I think you are saying that people were “born again” prior to Jesus talking about it.
Correct, but being born again, regenerated , born of God has always been around, before John the baptist.Jesus brought a baptism in the Holy Spirit that was not available to those before that time.
The manifestation of a saving faith will always result in good works, yes. Our communions would agree here.I think we will all agree that saving faith is a faith that works, no matter what our doctrinal distinctives may be.
Acknowledgement might be a way of putting it, although even that is a bit lacking. The demons might know the Truth awaits them, though they refuse to acknowledge it.Does intellectual assent mean agreement or acknowledgment?
Actually, in this particular passage, James calls faith a noun, something we possess, when referencing our faith. He refers to belief as a verb when referring to what the demons do. So it would seem that even the demons are capable of doing something, but without the correct something else behind it, it does nothing.Then there is the matter of the will. When it comes to faith, as you say, it is a “verb” in that I choose to place my faith in Christ by an act of the will. This is why it seems so similar to “believe”. Jesus calls us to “believe” in Him, does He not?
There’s definitely truth to that too.but because of all the additional trappings that are attached to the “solas”.
Amen.It may be one area of doctrine that we share more than we realize.
Yes but after they excommunicated Luther. That is the church rejected Luther, before she rejected any items he pointed out as abusive. This counters partly her point that Luther first rejected the church.I don’t think so. There have been erroneous practices since the beginning of the Church. If there were not errors, a counter reformation would not been necessary!
yes, quite Protestant of them…lol…yes agreed…quite “Universal”.Catholics understand the Church to be incarnational, like Jesus, so that there are human and divine natures in it.
Thank you for at least that admittance. Understand the perfect guidance of our head, Jesus and His sending of the Holy Ghost, but the Church is not like an autotron…the Incarnation suggests that the Perfect is aligned with flesh/man, and man’s union with Spirit is conditional, as it was for Jesus, who prayed and fasted to be in the Spirit…so some say the church is willing to throw an individual under the bus,admitting their error as long as the church is protected, unscathed…infallible…not in error…this is not an example of incarnation. This is not the example we have in OT and other covenants, where God also promised His holy infallible guidance. Indeed Israel failed from time to time, yet God was able to eventually reclaim honor and truth.Members of the Church err in theology and practice.
yes thank you…very telling of a church that must be right, has vested interests protected by claims infallibility…kind of puts them in a corner, making them very “dangerous” during Luther’s time…but…no better I suppose than 30,000 denominations.He was right to expect that the authorities should correct what was wrong teaching and practice. Had they taken him more seriously and responded in sanctity to his concerns, there may not have been a rebellion.
Ok, just shouldn’t consider dung as prevenient grace, or baby steps of a spiritual walk…flesh is flesh andComparitively, yes, but one cannot deny how God used all of that dung to build the Church! Dung is great fertilizer.
not with any real good results, but hop some do, as Jesus mentions.I don’t believe it is possible to “hop the fence”.
lol…back to the beginning of our dialogue…Nicodemus was “baptized” (circumcised…and barmitzvahed/“confirmed”) and raised in the faith also, but was not born again.If the CC did not believe what you have written here (justified first) we would not baptize infants and raise them in the faith.
or…or he obeyed his conscience rather than men (tradition, and institutional status quo is very, very powerful…more than one father succumbed to some of her forced points, in my opinion…points still being contended today…nothing like not nipping something in the bud,…the church has its Ishmael’s).Curiously, no, he did not reject the authority of a teaching church. He just seemed to consider his own authority of more value.
Excommunication, contrary to popular belief, is not “kicking someone out of the Church”. Rather, it is a disciplinary measure intended to call the member to repentance.Yes but after they excommunicated Luther.
No, the Church did not “reject Luther”. The Church rejected Luther’s behavior and doctrines. I agree that it took time to sift through all his complaints, until they were all addressed at Trent.That is the church rejected Luther, before she rejected any items he pointed out as abusive.
Luther never intended to create a schism or separation. He wanted to address what he saw as aggregious abuses. The Church eventually agreed that many of his points were valid.This counters partly her point that Luther first rejected the church.
I am not sure what this means, but it seems to reject Jesus’ promise that the Holy Spirit will guide the Church into “all Truth”.man’s union with Spirit is conditional,
This statement seems to be saying that you believe it was possible for Jesus to break His unity with the Holy Spirit.man’s union with Spirit is conditional, as it was for Jesus, who prayed and fasted to be in the Spirit
Perhaps not, but it is an example of the infallibility of the Church. Despite the fallibility of her human members, she is preserved from error by her divine elements.so some say the church is willing to throw an individual under the bus,admitting their error as long as the church is protected, unscathed…infallible…not in error…this is not an example of incarnation
Perhaps, but there is a qualitative difference. The HS was with the Church in a way that the HS was never with Israel. He was with them, but He moved within them. This is why it was a New Covenant.This is not the example we have in OT and other covenants, where God also promised His holy infallible guidance.
No, honor and Truth was always the possession of God. There were many persons who were not able to walk within the honor and Truth He ordained for Israel, but that did not create a failure of Him to be with them. Those who were saved have always been saved by grace, through faith.Israel failed from time to time, yet God was able to eventually reclaim honor and truth.
I am not sure what you think it is “telling”. The Church has never taught or believed that individuals could not err. The gift of infallibility is not equivalent to impeccability.yes thank you…very telling of a church that must be right, has vested interests protected by claims infallibility…
Persons who are corrupt and acting in the flesh are dangerous in every era. Simon Mangus was one early person, who is mentioned in the Gospels. The NT makes multiple references of the dangerous actions of those who opposed the Apostles and made a shipwreck of their faith. St. John mourns the havoc caused by persons claiming authority, by it disrupting the Church, and rejecting the Apostles.making them very “dangerous” during Luther’s time
“And they said, ‘Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household’.” - Acts 16:31The point the article makes, and which a poster in this thread misunderstood severely, is that in English the two can be synonyms in common speech, and that leads to imprecision in theological matters. This is why some people prefer to use the term ‘saving faith’ to differentiate from the mere belief of demons, etc.
Why do I have to post a concept multiple times before it sinks in? Of course they can be used interchangeably in everyday speech. That’s the point. That’s why your church shies away from the ‘Faith Alone’ formula, even when it would apply! But the Bible isn’t everyday speech. It had much richer meanings. Accordingly, we should not use them interchangeably in this context — English translators uniformly make the differentiation between mere belief and true faith. I explained this earlier to Guano. I’m getting tired of repeating myself to you.Belief and faith can be used interchangeably.
I did! ‘Complete faith’ was part of the definition in itself, not the thing to be defined. I used the phrase to help you understand that what James calls “faith” is more than just “belief” — i.e. it is ‘complete,’ ‘whole,’ ‘total,’ ‘true,’ …Also, do you care to answer my question regarding what a ‘complete faith’ is? How is faith alone a complete faith?
You mean, complete as in completed by works ‘complete’?I used the phrase to help you understand that what James calls “faith” is more than just “belief” — i.e. it is ‘complete,’ ‘whole,’ ‘total,’ ‘true,’ …
You don’t. Just link back to your previous post. Or if that is cumbersome, save your text in a file and cut and paste it.Why do I have to post a concept multiple times before it sinks in?
It appears you are in good company with Jesus!I’m getting tired of repeating myself to you.
Do you mean ‘in a sense’ like works complete our faith, not for justification, but only for sanctification?In a sense, yes. Does that surprise you? And I can say that while duly affirm the truth of Faith Alone
And, every time you regurgitate this claim, you do not attempt to correct my seeming unawareness of ‘actual Lutheran teachings’. Perhaps, because I do know and am aware, and when I expose these teachings, you simply retort with the same sentiments instead of displaying exactly where I am unaware and correcting that seeming unawareness.You claim to have been raised Lutheran, yet you do not seem remotely aware of actual Lutheran teachings
Yes, absolutely…incarnation…not autotronation…fully man…like you and I…able to be tempted…due to free will…had to submit…meaning full spiritual unity was conditional…like usThis statement seems to be saying that you believe it was possible for Jesus to break His unity with the Holy Spirit.
Most commentaries (and many translations) say that “According the flesh” means our “earthly father” or “the father or our race”, or “physical ancestor”. The greek works for flesh “sarx” is translated as “countrymen” or “fellow jews” in Romans 11:4.According to the flesh alludes to circumcision and other works of the Mosaic law pertaining to bodily observances, not to works of charity! Otherwise, this would make no sense:
This is referring to life under the old law. Romans 2 all the way to Romans 3:20 described how both the Jews and the Gentiles were judged under the old covenant. So Romans 2:13 is a true statement if you are following the Jewish law or were a Gentile following the moral/nature law. The only hope is to follow the law exactly and never sin. James 2:10 says For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become guilty of all of it.“For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.” - Romans 2:13
Because that verse addresses both of the things they were trying to correct.Let me repeat myself: Why does James use the same verse Paul used on Abraham to prove his point?