How do protestants explain the time between Christ and the reformation?

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So it would seem that Jesus completely bungled the founding of his Church and it took 1500 years or more for someone to straighten it out? But which of the alleged reformers then got it right? Because they immediately began reforming one another.
 
And now back to the OT, hopefully…
The question in the title comes off as saying all Christians were Roman Catholic from the time of Christ until the Reformation.

The Dark Ages have that term for a reason.
The whole “nobody could read the Bible because it was the dark ages and everyone was illiterate and the Catholics burned/chained all the Bibles and that’s why there’s a gap” argument ignores the Eastern Roman/Byzantine Empire, which had a golden age during the so-called dark ages. It also ignores the Orthodox Churches. When the Orthodox broke off from Rome 500 years before the Reformation, they ditched the Pope but kept everything else. So the Papacy was NOT the cause of the so called corruption/loss of the “original” Church. The Orthodox ditched Latin and went back to Greek even before they tossed the Pope, and they held the Holy Land until the Muslim Caliphate stole it from them, so illiteracy in the Biblical source languages isn’t the cause either. Anyone with half a brain and a decent secular encyclopedia can figure that out.

You’ve already explained why you’re not a Lutheran (Martin Luther believed in the Immaculate Conception of Mary). Maybe you could then explain why you aren’t Orthodox since they also don’t believe in the IC (it was proclaimed well after they rejected the Papacy). Further, if you reject the Orthodox because you think one or more of their teachings is unbiblical, then please explain the time gap of centuries between them and your church and why that gap doesn’t contradict 1 Tim 2:3-4.

Hopefully you’ll realize there is no gap and at least consider Orthodoxy (since you won’t be Catholic no matter what, it seems); but otherwise, you’re either going to lapse into Calvinism and call God evil, or you’re going to claim that even though God wills everyone to be saved and come to knowledge of the truth… He didn’t really mean that, or it wasn’t so important to Him after all. Except you already said…
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ReadTheBible:
John 18



20 Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word;

21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

…Jesus is praying that all the apostles are of one mind and doctrine
…So if there is a gap according to you, then please explain why God prayed for unity in doctrine one moment and then let a gap happen for centuries until the King James Bible came along.
 
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I’m afraid “free will” doesn’t provide a substantive ground to distinguish the views of Calvin and Luther from those of St. Augustine. Both Luther and Calvin acknowledged “free will” in the narrowly tailored sense acknowledged by St. Augustine. However, as noted throughout St. Augustine’s mature works, God can turn the will of the creature—whichever whenever, and wheresoever He wishes.

Those whom He chooses to turn to Himself will be turned (infallibly and thus irresistibly), and those whom He chooses not to turn will (infallibly) be hardened and condemned according to St. Augustine.

Likewise, St. Augustine and Calvin are on the same side as to God creating innumerable individuals whom He (justly) predestined for hell (although St. Augustine is on the infralapsarian side while Calvin is more on the supralapsarian side). However, the Arminian and Molinist can’t completely get around this matter either inasmuch as they likewise maintain that God created innumerable souls with infallible foreknowledge that they would be damned.

All that to say, God has power to make out of the same lump one vessel to honor and another to dishonor—and He does so in righteousness. As a number have noted, the amazing thing is not God’s severity in predestination but His unspeakable mercy. It is truly remarkable is that God chooses to have mercy on any of us.
 
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Wannano:
So to be explicit, are you stating that the Bible and the CC state there is no such thing as involuntary sins?
Correct. Google “Scrupulous Anonymous”—they’re an apostolate dedicated to answering questions like that.
So if the CC does not believe any sins are involuntary, why does the priest at a funeral petition God to “forgive his sins whether they are voluntary or involuntary?”
 
God can turn the will of the creature—whichever whenever, and wheresoever He wishes.
Of course He can, being omnipotent and all that. He can do anyTHING, but He can’t do evil because evil is not a thing but a privation or lack of good. (I know you know that 🙂 — this is for the viewing audience.)
 
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EZweber:
Because I believe the forgiveness of sins to be a specifically Apostolic power, and I do not believe that Lutherans have Apostolic Succession. Let’s not go off on this bunny trail though.
It isn’t a bunny trail when we are considering the topic. Think about it; Lutherans and Anglicans continue and maintain the pray of the early Church of confession and Holy Absolution, an apostolic practice. A Sacrament!
Actually,

Historically speaking, and apostolic succession, Luther blew it first then came Henry VIII schism and English Protestantism

Re: Anglican’s loss of apostolic succession

"Cranmer also revised the Rite of Ordination in 1550, which included no mention of the priesthood as a sacred office or the conveyance of supernatural power to consecrate the Eucharist. This new ordinal broke the chain of apostolic succession in England and made Anglican orders null and void, a fact Pope Leo confirmed in Apostolicae Curiae (1896). It was Cranmer under Edward VI who led England into heresy, but it was during the reign of Elizabeth I (1558-1603) that England became a Protestant nation}
For full context: HERE.
 
So if the CC does not believe any sins are involuntary, why does the priest at a funeral petition God to “forgive his sins whether they are voluntary or involuntary?”
I think that refers to sins of what are called “vincible ignorance,” where the person should have known that what they were doing was wrong in light of the natural law or the availability of revelation. When I say that a sin must be voluntary that includes that. You asked about accidental or unintended sin, which isn’t the same as when we should have known what we did was wrong. Again I’m gonna refer you over to Scrupulous Anonymous who are experts on this area.
 
quote=“MarysLurker, post:848, topic:549953” Explain the gap by resorting to Calvinist double predestination (which says there is no free will so God created everyone during the gap for the express purpose of going straight to hell), which raises an intractable problem of evil by making God the author of sin and thus the direct cause of the world’s evil.
Hello MarysLurker, Calvin was firmly in line with Augustinian tradition on the question of double predestination–albiet of the harder supralapsarian stripe, like Luther and the pre-reformation Bradwardine vs. those softer, squishier infralapsarians. [Aside–IMHO, while the infralapsarian position may not do complete justice on the matter, I think the infralapsarian position is likely as far as we can concretely go before getting into assertions beyond what God has revealed to us in Scripture].

Double predestination is a logical necessity for anyone who holds to the predestinarian position of St. Augustine or St. Aquinas (I know, because I’m Augustinian myself on the question of predestination). If, as St. Augustine and St. Aquinas assert, man can only obtain Salvation by God’s sovereign decree of election–apart from any foreseen faith or good works–then by necessity our Sovereign God has chosen from eternity (i.e. predestined) that all the non-elect be justly consigned to condemnation.

As our predestinarian friend St. Augustine notes, God’s predestination is both to salvation and to damnation (i.e. double predestination):
[/quote]

Augustine did NOT teach double predestination. BTW, Neither did Luther teach double predestination.
 
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Thanks MarysLurker. However, Calvin, Luther, etc. would likewise agree completely with your statement that God does not work evil in the heart of the non-elect. You need to read the R.C. Sproul article I linked to above. For all parties, Calvin, Luther, St. Augustine, etc.—the predestination or reprobation of the non-elect is accomplished through God giving them over (justly) to the condemnation and power of original sin and the actual sin that flows from it. God is not working sin in their heart, rather He is justly withdrawing His softening grace from them and thereby hardening their hearts.

In contrast, in the case of those elected to glory God is working inwardly to overcome the sinful motions of the heart and to produce the fruits of righteousness, etc.
 
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Again you are just applying your own misguided interpretation.
This has been said multiple times throughout this thread.

I have to remind you that it’s not as if I’m alone in my understanding. There’s millions of people that have the same understanding. It feels like when you or anyone claims I have a misinterpretation somehow I’m alone in the universe with these conclusions.

We are at odds on major issues and I don’t expect either side to change.

I don’t consider myself anti catholic in the sense we are to love everyone but I am against a lot of ideals the institution claims. I’m quite positive the pope would consider me anathema but I do not put my faith into man or man made institutions.

Jesus said, Wherefore by their fruits ye shall know them. He was talking about false prophets and others who at judgement day will think they will enter Heaven only to be turned away.

I won’t go into all the atrocities that have been a part of Catholicism. I’m sure the argument from Catholicism will be the atrocities weren’t part of faith and morals so the Pope maintains infallibility etc…

Catholicism banned the Word of God. This is an irrefutable fact through a very long and well documented history. If you took away all the other atrocities permitted or practiced by the Pope’s and Catholicism, this alone would be the fruit of the institution that would cause a great pause for reflection on who exactly Catholicism serves.

Rome will have excuses to suit their needs. I maintain Rome’s main reason was that the laity was finally able to read the Word in their native tongue and after doing so believed that scripture refuted many of Rome’s teachings. This was why Protestantism grew rapidly even while Rome and monarchies were trying all they could to suppress the spreading of scripture.
 
Thanks MarysLurker. However, Calvin, Luther, etc. would likewise agree completely with your statement that God does not work evil in the heart of the non-elect.
But Calvin would hold that God would also not work good (i.e. make prevenient grace available) in the life of the reprobate so as to give the reprobate a fair shot at salvation. That would be, effectively, a sin of omission on the part of God, which is impossible. It also contradicts 1 Tim 2:3-4. (Again, you know this stuff).
 
does not work evil in the heart of the non-elect.
Thanks MarysLurker. However, Calvin, Luther, etc. would likewise agree completely with your statement that God does not work evil in the heart of the non-elect. You need to read the R.C. Sproul article I linked to above. For all parties, Calvin, Luther, St. Augustine, etc.—the predestination or reprobation of the non-elect is accomplished through God giving them over (justly) to the condemnation and power of original sin and the actual sin that flows from it. God is not working sin in their heart, rather He is justly withdrawing His softening grace from them and thereby hardening their hearts.

In contrast, in the case of those elected to glory God is working inwardly to overcome the sinful motions of the heart and to produce the fruits of righteousness, etc.
You need to read THIS

Augustine is NOT a Calvinist and Sproul a Calvinist, is wrong about Augustine.
 
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Hello steve-b, I always find it interesting when an author asserts the beliefs of a party but doesn’t cite to their actual writings. I’m sure the fellow, Tom Nash, who wrote the article is well meaning, but in all honesty that article provides one of the poorest summaries of St. Augustine’s teachings I’ve come across.

He’s made St. Augustine out to be (for all intents) a Molinist who says God elects or reprobates based on foreseen works, a position that St. Augustine (and the Augustinian and Thomistic traditions) repudiates time and time again, and in no uncertain terms.

Again, ironically, the definition He gives of St. Augustine’s beliefs is actually the definition of the opposing position to the Augustinian (and Thomistic) traditions.
 
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Sources please?
The Council of Toulouse

Canon 14. We prohibit also that the laity should be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; unless anyone from motive of devotion should wish to have the Psalter or the Breviary for divine offices or the hours of the blessed Virgin; but we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books.

The Council of Tarragona second cannon

“No one may possess the books of the Old and New Testaments in the Romance language, and if anyone possesses them he must turn them over to the local bishop within eight days after promulgation of this decree, so that they may be burned lest, be he a cleric or a layman, he be suspected until he is cleared of all suspicion.”

From the Encyclical of POPE LEO XII, MAY 5, 1824:
  1. You have noticed a society, commonly called the Bible society, boldly spreading throughout the whole world. Rejecting the traditions of the holy Fathers and infringing the well-known decree of the Council of Trent,[16] it works by every means to have the holy Bible translated, or rather mistranslated, into the ordinary languages of every nation. There are good reasons for fear that (as has already happened in some of their commentaries and in other respects by a distorted interpretation of Christ’s gospel) they will produce a gospel of men, or what is worse, a gospel of the devil!
  2. To prevent this evil, Our predecessors published many constitutions. Most recently Pius VII wrote two briefs, one to Ignatius, Archbishop of Gniezno, the other to Stanislaus, Archbishop of Mohileu, quoting carefully and wisely many passages from the sacred writings and from the tradition to show how harmful to faith and morals this wretched undertaking is.
  3. In virtue of Our apostolic office, We too exhort you to try every means of keeping your flock from those deadly pastures. Do everything possible to see that the faithful observe strictly the rules of our Congregation of the Index. Convince them that to allow holy Bibles in the ordinary language, wholesale and without distinction, would on account of human rashness cause more harm than good.
These are a few, there are many more. Is this something you were aware of and just wanted me to provide some proof or were you not aware?
 
Catholicism banned the Word of God.
This is anti-Catholic rhetoric which has been disproved many times. Judas was one of chosen 12. It is my speculation that Jesus chose him to show that there will always be sinners who betrayed Him. That from the beginning the Church is full of sinners and betrayers. You seem to think that sinners prove the Church wrong when the opposite is true It seems you have the sad and common opinion that the Pope is to be sinless. You confuse infallibility with impeccability. Your so called irrefutable facts are lies. Your documentation is probably the same as your unbiased historians, non-existent. You should be mindful of not bearing false witness.
 
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hope:
Again you are just applying your own misguided interpretation.
This has been said multiple times throughout this thread.

I have to remind you that it’s not as if I’m alone in my understanding. There’s millions of people that have the same understanding. It feels like when you or anyone claims I have a misinterpretation somehow I’m alone in the universe with these conclusions.

We are at odds on major issues and I don’t expect either side to change.

I don’t consider myself anti catholic in the sense we are to love everyone but I am against a lot of ideals the institution claims. I’m quite positive the pope would consider me anathema but I do not put my faith into man or man made institutions.
reading your posts, You’re steeped in the hit pieces you use, that drive your rhetoric.
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ReadTheBible:
Jesus said, Wherefore by their fruits ye shall know them. He was talking about false prophets and others who at judgement day will think they will enter Heaven only to be turned away.

I won’t go into all the atrocities that have been a part of Catholicism. I’m sure the argument from Catholicism will be the atrocities weren’t part of faith and morals so the Pope maintains infallibility etc…
Jesus never promised a Judas free Church.

And we see all the heresies, schisms, divisions etc from the Church by corrupt people that have happened over The last 2000 years.
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ReadTheBible:
Catholicism banned the Word of God. This is an irrefutable fact through a very long and well documented history. If you took away all the other atrocities permitted or practiced by the Pope’s and Catholicism, this alone would be the fruit of the institution that would cause a great pause for reflection on who exactly Catholicism serves.
The Church NEVER banned the word of God. If you had proof you’d post it.

The Catholic Church has been here for 2000 yrs. It has all of Jesus promises. AND Jesus promised not even the gates of hell would prevail against it. I’ll take that and all His promises to the bank.
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ReadTheBible:
Rome will have excuses to suit their needs. I maintain Rome’s main reason was that the laity was finally able to read the Word in their native tongue and after doing so believed that scripture refuted many of Rome’s teachings. This was why Protestantism grew rapidly even while Rome and monarchies were trying all they could to suppress the spreading of scripture.
The Catholic Church gave us the bible. As far as reading, most people were illiterate. Yet before Luther was even a thought, there were already translations of the bible in German.

As Peter said about private interpretation of scripture, the ignorant and unstable will twist and distort the truth when they show up. So we need to be there to correct them
 
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Yes You mislead by saying banning the Bible as if all Bibles were banned which is not true half a truth is a lie
https://forums.catholic-questions.org/t/council-of-toulouse/6838/2

The Council of Toulouse did ban the possession of vernacular Bibles for the laity without a license; not because the Church wished to discourage the authentic study of Scripture, but because the Bible was used as a tool for the promotion of the Albigensian heresy. In the Middle Ages, Bibles contained glosses, either in between verses or in the margins. These glosses served to guide the reader’s interpretation of the text. A decently translated Bible could contain glosses which might lead the reader to reject the Church. Or the translation of the Bible could be perverted to support a heretical doctrine. For these reasons, some very poor and incorrectly translated bibles were burned.

The uncritical anti-Catholic also assumes that because there were relatively few bibles, knowledge of Scripture was limited. That was hardly the case. Catholics transmitted biblical knowledge in other forms. There were books which paraphrased stories in the Bible as is done today in children’s books. The visual arts abounded in Scriptural themes. Stained-glass windows were the poor man’s Bible. There were Miracle plays, which were the forerunners of modern Western theatre, as well as poems recounting Bible stories. Even the illiterate had access to the Bible through their families. Only a minority of people were literate during the Middle Ages, but sometimes one person in the family could read (often a woman) and the Bible, being the most widely-owned book in the Middle Ages, was read aloud.

The assumption driving this myth of bible-banning is that the Church, during the Middle Ages, was a big bad oppressor who wanted her flock to be ignorant so that it wouldn’t challenge her power and her doctrines.

So the charge that the Church was against knowledge of Scripture is entirely unfounded. It’s true that in some periods and some places vernacular versions of the Bible were rare or non-existent, but that’s not the same thing as saying that the Church did not want the laity to read the Bible.
 
Why do you always claim I’m distorting the truth when I get the information directly from Catholicism?

Did Luther preside over the Council of Tarragona? If so please provide proof otherwise Luther wasn’t part of the discussion.
 
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