How do we experience time?

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Great. What I am saying is that the agent cannot cause anything if there is no time. Why, because we are dealing with two events in here, before cause and after cause, and for that to be allowed you need time.
 
We only perceive it by the displacement or change of physical objects.

If time is an objective thing, we only observe it via derivatives.
 
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we are dealing with two events in here, before cause and after cause, and for that to be allowed you need time.
Umm… that’s one event. There’s a ‘before’ and an ‘after’, but there’s one event. (Aristotle deals with this in detail.) 😉
 
Just close your eyes and ears. You don’t receive anything yet you could experience time.
What do you mean? In the absence of external stimuli, I still have inward states that go from S to S’. I perceive and reflect on those changes. If I do not, I do not experience time.
 
What do you mean? In the absence of external stimuli, I still have inward states that go from S to S’. I perceive and reflect on those changes. If I do not, I do not experience time.
Ok, how could inward states lead to experience of time?
 
Again: Aristotle on one hand; you on the other. If one of you is wrong, take a guess who I’m going to go with… 😉
You have stuff/the-first-event before then act of causation and stuff/the-second-event after the act of causation.
 
You have stuff/the-first-event before then act of causation
The Church posits that God created ‘ex nihilo’ (that is, “from nothing”), and therefore, there was no ‘stuff’ prior to the ‘first event’ / ‘act of causation’.
and stuff/the-second-event after the act of causation.
Yes. And, of course, this only identifies one change (or, if you prefer, two states). There is no ‘middle state’, per se, required for creation.
 
I am talking about ourselves.
If I understand you correctly, you’re talking about your ‘coming-into-being’?

OK… simple: prior to your conception, there was no ‘stuff’ that was you. At the moment of your conception, there was a change from sperm-from-STT’s-father and egg-from-STT’s-mom to STT-himself.

Again: one act; one change; no intermediate state.
 
No, I am talking about ourselves acting in time.
Ok, then. Please give an example that attempts to demonstrate the assertion you’re making. (Your “f(x)->f’(x)” assertion isn’t an example, by the way.)
 
Yes indeed. There is the psychological perception of time depending on several factors, including, among others, what you say (how much fun–or misery, boredom, etc.–we’re having), as well as our age: for older people time seems to pass faster (unless they are lonely), while for the young, time passes slowly.
The psychological perception of time can also be different if someone has ADHD, especially in the middle of what is often called “hyperfocus.” One source online defines hyperfocus this way:
Hyperfocus is the tendency for children and adults with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD or ADD) to focus very intently on things that interest them. At times, the focus is so strong that they become oblivious to the world around them.
When I become hyperfocused on something I’m interested in, I might think I’ve only been doing it for half an hour when in fact, it’s been three or four hours.

I also saw an article recently in a magazine for people with ADHD which seems to suggest that there are other ways, too, in which those with ADHD perceive time that is different from people without ADHD:
Some experts think that individuals with ADHD perceive time not as a sequence but as a diffuse collection of events that are viscerally connected to the people, activities, and emotions involved in them. That often means they’re always late.

Children and adults with ADHD don’t see events; they “feel” them.

Several problem behaviors result from our novel perception of time:
  • procrastination
  • missing deadlines
  • doing things in the wrong order
  • underestimating the time it takes to do tasks
Research suggests that those with ADHD are deficient in temporal processing abilities, which affect executive functioning. This interferes with our ability to perceive time accurately when tasks require our attention or present an opportunity for impulsive responses.
 
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Ok, then. Please give an example that attempts to demonstrate the assertion you’re making. (Your “f(x)->f’(x)” assertion isn’t an example, by the way.)
We have three things, the situation before act, act and the situation after act.
 
So you’ve got the first event…before the act of causation. Then you’ve got the second event…after the act of causation.
Yes.
When is the act of causation?
Between two events.
Technically, wouldn’t that be the second event?
You could call it second event.
This reminds me of the riddle…where was the man when he jumped off the building? Before he jumped he was on the building, and after he jumped he was in the air. So where was the man when he jumped off the building?
If reality is discrete which seems so then the person was nowhere.
 
We have three things, the situation before act, act and the situation after act.
So, three points in time. Fair enough.

The initial state exists in the instant “before”. The changed state occurs in the instant “during”. The changed state remains in the instant “after.”

Two states. One change. No problems. 🙂
 
I really just have a question, and don’t know where to post it. Why does the concept of forever scare me so much?? Am I the only one??
 
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