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14olearyn
Guest
Hello!
I recently attended a lecture at my church on the Gnostic Gospels.
In the first lecture, the lecturer seemed to imply that the Gospels of Mary Magdalene and Thomas were rejected by the Church fathers because the fathers sought to control the development of the Church for their own benefit.
In the second lecture, he explained that much of what is written in the Gospel of Thomas is inconsistent or even contrary to what is written in the Gospel of John. The Gospel of John, he said, was written specifically to counter what is written in the Gospel of Thomas. Again, the lecturer was implying that the Gospel of John had been written for political reasons, and consequently, he seemed to be subtly suggesting that we cannot affirm anything in the Gospels.
The whole ordeal shook my faith a bit. I kept reasoning silently, “If we cannot trust what is written in the Gospels, we have no grounds to trust the Church, and if we cannot trust the Church, we cannot trust the Gospels.” If the authority of the Church is based on scripture (i.e. Matthew 16:18), but scripture was created by the Church, what basis does the scripture have, and what basis does the Church have for its authority?
(I’m sorry for being so confusing!)
Thank you!
I recently attended a lecture at my church on the Gnostic Gospels.
In the first lecture, the lecturer seemed to imply that the Gospels of Mary Magdalene and Thomas were rejected by the Church fathers because the fathers sought to control the development of the Church for their own benefit.
In the second lecture, he explained that much of what is written in the Gospel of Thomas is inconsistent or even contrary to what is written in the Gospel of John. The Gospel of John, he said, was written specifically to counter what is written in the Gospel of Thomas. Again, the lecturer was implying that the Gospel of John had been written for political reasons, and consequently, he seemed to be subtly suggesting that we cannot affirm anything in the Gospels.
The whole ordeal shook my faith a bit. I kept reasoning silently, “If we cannot trust what is written in the Gospels, we have no grounds to trust the Church, and if we cannot trust the Church, we cannot trust the Gospels.” If the authority of the Church is based on scripture (i.e. Matthew 16:18), but scripture was created by the Church, what basis does the scripture have, and what basis does the Church have for its authority?
(I’m sorry for being so confusing!)
Thank you!