How do we know infallibility gets passed down?

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Yes.

What you are saying is that the Church’s teaching can be wrong. That is the opposite of TRUE.

Objective Truth exists, God says we can know it, therefore we must have a WAY to know it.
Once again, you are starting with a conclusion and working backwards. I am not saying you are wrong, but if this is the Church answer to this question, then it is INCREDIBLY unpersuasive.
 
He is one of the players in 2 Kings who took the place of Shebna. Shebna was “Master of the palace” but King Hezikiah removed Shebna from that office and put Eliakim in his place. Shebna was demoted to the position of scribe or secretary.

“Eliakim” means “One whom God will raise up.”

If I remember correctly, the prophet Isaiah had called on the Israelites to fast and put on sackcloth and ashes to show contrition and petition God for help in battle. I believe that Shebna started fortifying the city instead, tearing down houses to build up the defenses, and in so doing relied on himself and his own strength instead of relying on God. I think he even partied before the battle and may have coined the phrase, “Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die.” God wasn’t too happy about this and let Shebna know about it through the prophet Isaiah.

I don’t think there is much information about Eliakim prior to his being appointed Master of the Palace, but I could have missed it or forgotten.

2 Kings 18, 19 and a few other chapters prior and after are the story of King Hezikiah and include Shebna and Eliakim as characters. It reads like a good John Wayne war movie. I was in a men’s bible study once and all the guys loved it.

1 and 2 Kings are great books. They show how the Mother of the King was the Queen and therefor why Mary is a Queen and teach us much about how the Kingdom’s of the Old Testament were prototypes for his true kingdom to come.

-Tim-
I am not sure then, given what you said, how this passage relates to the question of infallibility? Perhaps you could explain further.
 
Yes.

What you are saying is that the Church’s teaching can be wrong. That is the opposite of TRUE.

Objective Truth exists, God says we can know it, therefore we must have a WAY to know it.
I agree with the objective truth statement here…I just want to make that clear. But, again, the Church is the one who teaches they don’t know the answer to everything…not me.
 
Try Isaiah 22:22-24… this explains how the Keys of the Kingdom of David are passed down. 😃
 
Great quotes…although one question I do have is that if bishops are taking the place of Christ, then why do they have to adhere to the Pope?
The bishops adhere to the Pope because he is the successor of Peter – the same Peter that Jesus said he would found the Church open, and the same Peter to whom Jesus gave the keys of the kingdom of heaven. What would the communion of bishops become without that foundation, or what authority would they have if they did not share in the power of the keys?
I know it sounds like a foolish question, and in a way it is, but there are many bishops and they clearly do not have the power entrusted in them that Rome does.
Indeed, just as there were many Apostles: yet Jesus promised the keys to Peter alone. Jesus asked Peter if he loved Jesus more than the other Apostles, and then charged Peter to feed Christ’s sheep. Peter is mentioned first of all Apostles and speaks on their behalf consistently throughout the New Testament.
 
The bishops adhere to the Pope because he is the successor of Peter – the same Peter that Jesus said he would found the Church open, and the same Peter to whom Jesus gave the keys of the kingdom of heaven. What would the communion of bishops become without that foundation, or what authority would they have if they did not share in the power of the keys?

Indeed, just as there were many Apostles: yet Jesus promised the keys to Peter alone. Jesus asked Peter if he loved Jesus more than the other Apostles, and then charged Peter to feed Christ’s sheep. Peter is mentioned first of all Apostles and speaks on their behalf consistently throughout the New Testament.
Excellent, thank you very much. Although, one thing that still troubles me here is that Jesus says in Mathew 18 that all the apostles will share in infallibility, and if that is passed down through apostolic succession, how can any of those respective churches disagree with Rome about anything if they are all infallible?
 
Try Isaiah 22:22-24… this explains how the Keys of the Kingdom of David are passed down. 😃
Another poster actually mentioned this passage as well, can you, or anyone for that matter, explain it a little better. I mean I see the obvious parallels, but I don’t see how “Eliakim son of Hilkiah” relates to the Church.
 
When did the apostles say this? According to the Eastern Rites, Rome does not have infallibility, and they actually have valid apostolic succession as well dating back to apostles who were also promised the same authority as Peter.
The Orthodox do, however, recognize that bishops are successors of the apostles, even if they do not think that Peter had the same power that we think he had. So far as I understand, they do not deny that the Pope is the successor of Peter, but simply deny that Peter’s chair has the authority we say it has. This is a separate (though highly related) issue though, so I’d just as soon leave it for now. After all, it makes no sense to talk about a pope if we don’t have bishops.

Going back to the other issue, I’ll admit that there’s a little bit of trust involved here. Not an awful lot - Acts clearly shows the apostles choosing successors and the mere word “successor” implies continuation of the same function - but some.

The best I can say on short notice without digging through sources (which I just don’t have time to do right now) is that, despite what protestants tend to say, the early Church Fathers clearly have the same opinion of bishops as we do today, and these people would only have been a few “generations” of bishops removed from the Apostles themselves.

So the only way this could be wrong is if the apostles ordained successors and did not tell them that the infallibility given to the apostles as a whole (and to Peter in a special way, but that’s a different, though related, story) was passed on along, and those successors ordained successors and did not tell them that they had, as a group, the charism of infallibility, and so on, but within the first several “generations” the entire collected body of bishops (or enough that it might as well have been the entire collected body) claimed to have this power for no apparent reason WITHOUT CAUSING A BLOODY ROW.

Now, the closer in time you are to the original apostles, the harder it would be to mess with doctrine because you’d have people saying “I remember Peter or Paul saying that you’re wrong.” But the farther you are from the apostles, the harder it would be to convince all the bishops at once that they had some sort of power that they had no reason to think they had, simply because there’d be more of them.

So for this doctrine to have spontaneously generated would have required either a vast conspiracy or a vast stupidity among all those people who the Church thought were the best suited to lead them, and it would have required this to happen without anyone noticing. This is extremely unlikely.

It would also amount to vast heresy by all the Church leaders. This is where the gates of hell argument comes in. You may not accept that that argument directly implies that the Church would be infallible, but you have to admit that the entire church falling into heresy for at least 1000 years, and more likely 1400 or so years, would be an awful lot like the gates of hell prevailing for a little bit.

Several people have already given several good arguments about why Christ would have given the Church infallibility (after all, if a good shepherd never abandons a sheep, then clearly the Good Shepherd wouldn’t abandon His flock to figure out such things like the how to attain (or receive or whatever) salvation by taking their best guess at what a book means). But this is the best (on short notice) that I can do to demonstrate that Christ actually did, without recourse to the “it’d be best and Christ does what’s best” argument (though I like and accept that argument as well).
 
We have to look to the Old Testament for the basis of teaching on this and remember that the Old Testament is the story of God progressively revealing himself to his chosen people. Jesus is the King of kings, and we learn about what plans God has for his Kingdom from the kingdoms of the Old Testament.

The kings of the Old Testament always had a group of “ministers”, close counselors and people with specific areas of responsiblity, similar to the US President’s cabinet. One of the ministers was a first, or “Prime” minister. The Old Testament refers to these people using terms such as “Lord over the house of the King” and similar titles.

You shall be in charge of my palace, and all my people shall dart at your command. Only in respect to the throne shall I outrank you. Herewith," Pharaoh told Joseph, “I place you in charge of the whole land of Egypt.” With that, Pharaoh took off his signet ring and put it on Joseph’s finger. He had him dressed in robes of fine linen and put a gold chain about his neck. He then had him ride in the chariot of his vizier, and they shouted “Abrek!” before him. Thus was Joseph installed over the whole land of Egypt. “I, Pharaoh, proclaim,” he told Joseph, "that without your approval no one shall move hand or foot in all the land of Egypt." (Genesis 41:40-44)

Joseph was installed as “Prime Minister” to the king of Egypt. We see in the Book of Esther how the office of Prime Minister was transferred from an unworthy servant to a worthy servant.

***The king removed his signet ring from Haman, and transferred it into the keeping of Mordecai; and Esther put Mordecai in charge of the house of Haman. ***(Esther 8:2)

This is God’s revelation of how his own kingdom would be organized. We see it again the prophecy of Isaiah.

***I will thrust you from your office
and pull you down from your station.
On that day I will summon my servant
Eliakim, son of Hilkiah;
I will clothe him with your robe,
gird him with your sash,
confer on him your authority.
He shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem,
and to the house of Judah.f
I will place the key of the House of David on his shoulder;
what he opens, no one will shut,
what he shuts, no one will open.
***(Isaiah 22:19-22)

This is a text which every Catholic should be familiar with because Jesus references this exact passage when he gives the keys of the kingdom to Peter.

***I will give you the keys to the kingdom of heaven. Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.” ***(Matthew 16:19)

Infallibilty when teaching on matters of faith and morals belongs to the Holy Father by virtue of his office as Prime Minister of the Church, which is handed down. The fact that it was intenteded as an office to be handed down is revealed to us in scripture.

Catholics believe that infallibility is part of the office of the Pope. Non-Catholics can argue about whether that is true or not but Catholics believe that it is. The fact that the Prime Minister who is in charge of God’s Kingdom is an office established by God to be handed down - that is not debatable because it is revealed to us in scripture.

Catholics believe infallibility when teaching on matters of faith and morals is a virtue of the office of the Pope, not a virtue of the man who hold’s that office himself.

-Tim-
It seems like good theology .Thank- you .Just got off a thread dealing with JW’s .It was said they have an answer for everything and they practice their responses. I guess that is true for all of us .Good answers may reflect centuries of formulation.I do not see the correlation of Joseph (prime minister) mixing with the high priest office .It has been suggested that at first when coming out of Egypt they were ALL supposed to be a kingdom of priests .There was no “us” and “them”. Then sin and rebellion entered and now you had a select priesthood ,a whole tribe with it’s offices (including high priest. This is very much how later Israel wanted a “king”, and did not want just God as their king .Bad idea .I believ ethere is enough scripture on the other side of the argument to show the Church is not old testament as you say but indeed something new and idea l(uncorrupted with with old ways, the ways of men, -top -down governance, lording over etc,but we would all be “priests”, and"every neighbor would teach his neighbor") .Anyways ,pretty sure the High priest was not a civil ruler or prime minister, not even sure if he could spiritually dictate say "doctrine’ .Shepherd, yes. Authority, yes ,to perform the sacrifice and duties of the "mediator"for his people .Alas,you (the CC) has great arguments, but so are the counter arguments, which are just as old.
 
The Orthodox do, however, recognize that bishops are successors of the apostles, even if they do not think that Peter had the same power that we think he had. So far as I understand, they do not deny that the Pope is the successor of Peter, but simply deny that Peter’s chair has the authority we say it has. This is a separate (though highly related) issue though, so I’d just as soon leave it for now. After all, it makes no sense to talk about a pope if we don’t have bishops.

Going back to the other issue, I’ll admit that there’s a little bit of trust involved here. Not an awful lot - Acts clearly shows the apostles choosing successors and the mere word “successor” implies continuation of the same function - but some.

The best I can say on short notice without digging through sources (which I just don’t have time to do right now) is that, despite what protestants tend to say, the early Church Fathers clearly have the same opinion of bishops as we do today, and these people would only have been a few “generations” of bishops removed from the Apostles themselves.

So the only way this could be wrong is if the apostles ordained successors and did not tell them that the infallibility given to the apostles as a whole (and to Peter in a special way, but that’s a different, though related, story) was passed on along, and those successors ordained successors and did not tell them that they had, as a group, the charism of infallibility, and so on, but within the first several “generations” the entire collected body of bishops (or enough that it might as well have been the entire collected body) claimed to have this power for no apparent reason WITHOUT CAUSING A BLOODY ROW.

Now, the closer in time you are to the original apostles, the harder it would be to mess with doctrine because you’d have people saying “I remember Peter or Paul saying that you’re wrong.” But the farther you are from the apostles, the harder it would be to convince all the bishops at once that they had some sort of power that they had no reason to think they had, simply because there’d be more of them.

So for this doctrine to have spontaneously generated would have required either a vast conspiracy or a vast stupidity among all those people who the Church thought were the best suited to lead them, and it would have required this to happen without anyone noticing. This is extremely unlikely.

It would also amount to vast heresy by all the Church leaders. This is where the gates of hell argument comes in. You may not accept that that argument directly implies that the Church would be infallible, but you have to admit that the entire church falling into heresy for at least 1000 years, and more likely 1400 or so years, would be an awful lot like the gates of hell prevailing for a little bit.

Several people have already given several good arguments about why Christ would have given the Church infallibility (after all, if a good shepherd never abandons a sheep, then clearly the Good Shepherd wouldn’t abandon His flock to figure out such things like the how to attain (or receive or whatever) salvation by taking their best guess at what a book means). But this is the best (on short notice) that I can do to demonstrate that Christ actually did, without recourse to the “it’d be best and Christ does what’s best” argument (though I like and accept that argument as well).
You make several great points here…but what I would like to say regarding the first point you made is that, I don’t deny the Orthodox support the notion that apostolic succession is valid. What I am saying is that if the Church claims infallibility based on apostolic succession, then that means all of the other seats of the 11 other apostles are also apostolic seats with apostolic succession and infallibility, because Jesus promises infallibility to all the apostles, not just Peter. So if that is true, none of the apostolic seats can ever disagree on official doctrine, because that would mean they are not infallible. I am not sure how to reconcile this as a Catholic. If the Church has infallibility, and so do the other churches, they can never disagree on anthing, and they have and do to this day.
 
I am not sure then, given what you said, how this passage relates to the question of infallibility? Perhaps you could explain further.
It does not, not directly.

It shows how the office is passed down and with it, as Catholics believe, infalliblity as a virtue and attribute of that office. You are correct in that it does not relate to infallibility in and of itself.

Infallibility as a virtue of that office was conferred directly onto Peter in Luke 22, right after the institution of the Eucharist at the Last Supper which was celebrated with the 12 Apostles. Jesus tells the twelve explicitly that he is confering his Father’s kingdom on them, and then addresses Peter directly…

***It is you who have stood by me in my trials; and I confer a kingdom on you, just as my Father has conferred one on me, that you may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom; and you will sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Simon, Simon, behold Satan has demanded to sift all of you like wheat, but I have prayed that your own faith may not fail; and once you have turned back, you must strengthen your brothers. *(Luke 22:28-32)

Notice that the 12 Apostles at the Last Supper will be “Judges” who sit on thrones. This is a very Jewish statment. We have to understand this statement in the way the Jews listening to Jesus would have.

Prior to recieving a king, the nation of Israel went through a period know as the period of the Judges. During this time, God raised up twelve Judges who sat on thrones and judged Israel. The kings of Israel who came later were the supreme judge. The judges and the kings after them had both the authority and (hopefully) wisdom to intepret God’s covenant law and dispense justice based on their interpetation of that law. King Solomon was one such judge, as were the Judges like Sampson and Jeptha in the Book of Judges. No one would ever question the judgement of a Judge in the book of Judges nor would they question the judgement of the king. It’s worth reading some of the book of Judges to get the context of what Jesus is talking about when he tells the 12 that they will sit on thrones and be judges.

Jesus goes on to state clearly that although Satan demands to sift all 12 Apostles, it is up to Peter alone to strengthen his brothers.

This and various other passages such as “Because knowledge of the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven has been granted to you, but to them it has not been granted.” (Matthew 13:11) and similar point to a special gift of the Holy Spirit which protects the leadership of the Church from teaching error in matters of faith and morals.

Consider Paul, who never met Jesus in the flesh, yet calls himself an Apostle many times.

*But we impart a secret and hidden wisdom of God, which God decreed before the ages for our glorification. (2 Corinthains 2:7)

And we impart this in words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual truths to those who possess the Spirit. (2 Corinthians 2:13)*

Paul believe he and his fellow leaders of the Church - Apostles, those whom we know as bishops - have a special gift of the Holy Spirit to “Interpret spiritual truths.”

Taken in its entirety, scripture speak to a special protection by the Holy Spirit, and guidance by the Holy Spirit, of the Apostles and the successors to their office the Bishops. Peter as the Prime Minister is protected in a very special way by Jesus’ specific prayer and is able to “strengthen his brethren”, so that the Church’s teaching office - what we call the Magisterium - cannot teach error in matters of faith and morals.

-Tim-
 
Also, on the issue of the early Church fathers claiming infallibility, I am not sure this is even true. Did they ever actually say that? They clearly believed in Church authority to make decisions, but that is different than infallibility. The Church can have the authority to rule without the gift of infallibility.
 
It does not, not directly.

It shows how the office is passed down and with it, as Catholics believe, infalliblity as a virtue and attribute of that office. You are correct in that it does not relate to infallibility in and of itself.

Infallibility as a virtue of that office was conferred directly onto Peter in Luke 22, right after the institution of the Eucharist at the Last Supper which was celebrated with the 12 Apostles. Jesus tells the twelve explicitly that he is confering his Father’s kingdom on them, and then addresses Peter directly…

***It is you who have stood by me in my trials;
and I confer a kingdom on you, just as my Father has conferred one on me,
that you may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom; and you will sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

“Simon, Simon, behold Satan has demanded to sift all of you like wheat, but I have prayed that your own faith may not fail; and once you have turned back, you must strengthen your brothers.”
(Luke 22:28-32)***

Jesus states clearly that Satan demands to sift all of them, but that Peter alone must strengthen his brothers.

This and various other passages such as “Because knowledge of the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven has been granted to you, but to them it has not been granted.” (Matthew 13:11) and similar point to a special gift of the Holy Spirit which protects the leadership of the Church from teaching error in matters of faith and morals.

Consider Paul, who never met Jesus in the flesh, yet calls himself an Apostle many times.

But we impart a secret and hidden wisdom of God, which God decreed before the ages for our glorification. (2 Corinthains 2:7)

And we impart this in words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual truths to those who possess the Spirit. (2 Corinthians 2:13)

Taken in their entirety, these verses speak to a special protection by the Holy Spirit, and guidance by the Holy Spirit, so that the Church’s teaching office - what we call the Magisterium - cannot teach error in matters of faith and morals.

-Tim-
Great post Tim, but again, it doesn’t answer the conflict between the seats of the other 11 apostles and Rome…The other apostles were promised infallibility in Mathew 18, and through apostolic succession, the Orthodox churches that can trace back to the apostles should also be able to claim it. But, if this is true, how can both Rome and the others be infallile when they do disagree on various aspects of the faith?
 
With all due respect, Protestantism had is beginnings in Germany in 1520.

Catholicism however has Jewish Temple worship given to Israel by God at it’s very roots. Catholicism was born sacramentally when blood and water flowed from Christ’s side. The Catholic Church was born materially and visibly at Pentacost, fifty days after Christ’s ressurection. Catholicism and Christianity were synonymous from AD33 until 1520.

Matthew in general, does not differentiate between the larger group of “Disciples” and the 12 Apostles. Matthew does however, specify “The twelve” five times. Surely, as a disciple of Christ, you don’t claim to be infallible?

I’m unsure of the outcomes of which you speak. Do you mean Catholic French Canada, the entire continent of South America, and Western North America which was mostly, if not totally Catholic? Or do you mean the thirteen colonies of mostly Protestant origin, founded by Unitarian Universalists like John Adams and Freemasons like George Washington? Do your outcomes include legalized murder of unborn infants and fifty million butchered babies?

-Tim-
Sorry .i meant it’s “planting” in the new world, how both churches spread it message to the new world around the same time .I was not inferring the origins of the churches themselves ,only comparing their history in the new world.Sorry…anyways so whom did Jesus have to speak in parables to ,who were not given the “mysteries” ?..As far as abortion ,be careful ,too many Catholic legislators and governors who are pro-abortion also.
 
You make several great points here…but what I would like to say regarding the first point you made is that, I don’t deny the Orthodox support the notion that apostolic succession is valid. What I am saying is that if the Church claims infallibility based on apostolic succession, then that means all of the other seats of the 11 other apostles are also apostolic seats with apostolic succession and infallibility, because Jesus promises infallibility to all the apostles, not just Peter. So if that is true, none of the apostolic seats can ever disagree on official doctrine, because that would mean they are not infallible. I am not sure how to reconcile this as a Catholic. If the Church has infallibility, and so do the other churches, they can never disagree on anthing, and they have and do to this day.
The difference is that He promised infallibility to the apostles as a whole, in union with their leader, Peter, not to each individually. You’ll notice that the apostles did debate things - they did not always immediately agree - it is the decision of the group which was accepted as infallible.

So it is not necessary that that the successor of each Apostle have infallibility individually. (Again, Peter is a special case.)

It is then possible to see that the disagreements between Catholics and the Orthodox (which are remarkably few, by the way, especially if we look beyond superficial ways of expressing things and into what is actually meant) would be akin to the apostles meeting in union with Peter and deciding something, then some of the other apostles refusing to accept the decision despite the fact that it is the decision of the group and hence certainly true (doubtless the Orthodox would have their own reasoning that doesn’t make them sound like this, but I of course can only reason from a Catholic point of view since I do not fully understand the Orthodox point of view).

As for sources on what the early church fathers thought and wrote, I recommend The Fathers Know Best by Jimmy Akin. (This also shows support among the fathers for the Catholic view of the Pope).
 
The difference is that He promised infallibility to the apostles as a whole, in union with their leader, Peter, not to each individually. You’ll notice that the apostles did debate things - they did not always immediately agree - it is the decision of the group which was accepted as infallible.

So it is not necessary that that the successor of each Apostle have infallibility individually. (Again, Peter is a special case.)

It is then possible to see the disagreements between Catholic and Orthodox (which are remarkably few, by the way, especially if we look beyond superficial ways of expressing things and into what is actually meant) would be akin to the apostles meeting in union with Peter and deciding something, then some of the other apostles refusing to accept the decision despite the fact that it is the decision of the group and hence certainly true (doubtless the Orthodox would have their own reasoning that doesn’t make them sound like this, but I of course can only reason from a Catholic point of view since I do not fully understand the Orthodox point of view).

As for sources on what the early church fathers thought and wrote, I recommend The Fathers Know Best by Jimmy Akin. (This also shows support among the fathers for the Catholic view of the Pope).
This is not accurate. In Matthew 18, it very clearly says that where 2 or 3 of them speak in the name of Jesus, they will be unable to err. It is very clear. It does not require all of the apostles to have infallibility.
 
Excellent, thank you very much. Although, one thing that still troubles me here is that Jesus says in Mathew 18 that all the apostles will share in infallibility, and if that is passed down through apostolic succession, how can any of those respective churches disagree with Rome about anything if they are all infallible?
In Matthew 16, Jesus spoke to Peter alone (ex cathedra.) In Matthew 18, Jesus spoke to the whole group with Peter (magisterium.)

So one or a few bishops may cause a schism, because it is only within the context of the entire communion of bishops in communion with the successor of Peter (just as in Matthew 18) that they are infallible.
 
Mathew 18:19: “Again, truly I tell you that if two of you on earth agree about anything they ask for, it will be done for them by my Father in heaven. 20 For where two or three gather in my name, there am I with them.”
 
In Matthew 16, Jesus spoke to Peter alone (ex cathedra.) In Matthew 18, Jesus spoke to the whole group with Peter (magisterium.)

So one or a few bishops may cause a schism, because it is only within the context of the entire communion of bishops in communion with the successor of Peter (just as in Matthew 18) that they are infallible.
Then how do you explain Mathew 18:19, where Jesus does NOT mention Peter at all and says only 2 are needed for infallibility?
 
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