How do we know that scripture is Inspired?

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But the technology was not there but it was recorded by over 500 eye witnesses who could testify to seeing the Risen Lord. This is the proof by the only means available in their time. Eye witness testimony is good.
I don’t believe there were any eyewitnesses. The Bible merely makes the claim that there were many eyewtinesses, but there has never been one single extra-Biblical proof or writing by any of the alleged witnesses to back up this claim.
 
I don’t believe there were any eyewitnesses. The Bible merely makes the claim that there were many eyewtinesses, but there has never been one single extra-Biblical proof or writing by any of the alleged witnesses to back up this claim.
Your falling into logical fallacy here. This is a non-sequitur also known as “argument from absence.”

Your saying because we don’t have a written account from these witnesses, the witnesses must not exist.

I don’t have a written account from every person who witnessed the first Super Bowl, but that doesn’t mean the witnesses weren’t there. It doesn’t even mean they didn’t write down what they saw and experienced. It only means I don’t have their written account.
 
Contarini,

Since you reject the argument already presented, how would you prove the inspiration of Scripture?
 
Your falling into logical fallacy here. This is a non-sequitur also known as “argument from absence.”

Your saying because we don’t have a written account from these witnesses, the witnesses must not exist.

I don’t have a written account from every person who witnessed the first Super Bowl, but that doesn’t mean the witnesses weren’t there. It doesn’t even mean they didn’t write down what they saw and experienced. It only means I don’t have their written account.
No, he is most certainly not committing that fallacy you are accusing him of.
It’s sad that you accuse someone this way.

Maybe there were witnesses; but since we don’t have independent accounts from them, we can’t rely on those witnesses.
 
No, he is most certainly not committing that fallacy you are accusing him of.
It’s sad that you accuse someone this way.

Maybe there were witnesses; but since we don’t have independent accounts from them, we can’t rely on those witnesses.
That’s not what he said.
I don’t believe there were any eyewitnesses. The Bible merely makes the claim that there were many eyewtinesses, but there has never been one single extra-Biblical proof or writing by any of the alleged witnesses to back up this claim.
Maybe he meant what you’ve added, but based on what he said I’m left with the conclusion that he believes the witnesses didn’t exist because we have no written records from any of them. That’s argument from absence. The same as if you don’t believe I have a car because you haven’t seen me drive it.
For starters, I am bewildered why anyone would attempt to try to prove such a thing.
???

Why does this bewilder you? Do you not think it’s important to know whether or not Scripture is inspired?
 
We can prove that it is reasonable to believe in the Bible as the inspired word of God, but it is Belief that proves it for believers which is recognized as a Divine Gift. Reason with all of it’s information can dispose one to believing, but it is the living experience of the truths of the Bible that confirm it"s Divine Inspiration. the Bible is prophetical, and also contains the religious history of the Jewish nation. Also it is the source of conversion to Christianity. It constitutes part of what is called, the Deposit of Faith united with Apostolic Tradition. Everything was not written, but oral. Belief in Scripture is a gift, not one of reason, although it does not contradict right-reason. There are what seems to be apparent contradictions. Those that have this gift of belief can testify to it’s supernatural quality as being the Word of God, I for one. Even belief in Jesus Christ is a gift, although we have the witnesses of the twelve Apostles. the Catholic Church can trace historically the succession of all the Popes from the time of St. Peter.

As I see it, God will not be subject to His creation, which He did willingly as He subjected Himself in Jesus, God-man. It is right and just that man now humbly subject himself to Jesus who merited for man, love and eternal happiness, it is right and just. This subjection to God will be given joyfully and with love, not out of force or obligation. We humans can be very arrogant, proud, and unloving towards God and each other. Personal witness to the Bible, the Faith is insufficient if the “Good News of Jesus” is not proclaimed. (less anyone take the credit)
 
???

Why does this bewilder you? Do you not think it’s important to know whether or not Scripture is inspired?
It is certainly important to believe that Scripture is inspired.

It’s not clear how it would be possible to know that it is inspired.
 
Your falling into logical fallacy here. This is a non-sequitur also known as “argument from absence.”
You are falling into the exact same thing, except you believe the converse to be true. There is an absence of writings, but for some reason you still think they’re there. Amidst all the discoveries we’ve made about the ancient world, we’ve never come across any eyewitness proofs or writings. Based on this fact and what we have to work with thus far, I find it more plausible to conclude that there are none.
Your saying because we don’t have a written account from these witnesses, the witnesses must not exist.
You’re saying because we don’t have a written account from these witnesses, the witnesses must exist. I don’t find this plausible or even logical.
I don’t have a written account from every person who witnessed the first Super Bowl, but that doesn’t mean the witnesses weren’t there. It doesn’t even mean they didn’t write down what they saw and experienced. It only means I don’t have their written account.
Except if you really wanted to dig up facts about who witnessed the first Super Bowl, you could easily obtain them. You can watch the Super Bowl, for instance, and see the thousands of people who were in attendance. You could go with the tv network’s data to see how many households were tuned in. But, this is a poor comparison nonetheless, as no one is trying to convince me to give up my life and put all my energy, effort, and money based on who watched the first Super Bowl.
 
You are falling into the exact same thing, except you believe the converse to be true. There is an absence of writings, but for some reason you still think they’re there. Amidst all the discoveries we’ve made about the ancient world, we’ve never come across any eyewitness proofs or writings. Based on this fact and what we have to work with thus far, I find it more plausible to conclude that there are none.

You’re saying because we don’t have a written account from these witnesses, the witnesses must exist. I don’t find this plausible or even logical.
I haven’t said anything of the sort. I’ve simply pointed out that your argument is “it can’t be true because there’s no evidence it is.”

From that, you made assumptions about my beliefs.
Except if you really wanted to dig up facts about who witnessed the first Super Bowl, you could easily obtain them. You can watch the Super Bowl, for instance, and see the thousands of people who were in attendance. You could go with the tv network’s data to see how many households were tuned in.
Yes, I can see a TV projection of thousands of people in a stadium. But there is no evidence those people actually are there. Nor is the fact that 100,000 people are on a TV screen evidence that someone who claims they were there actually was.

Your example of the TV network data as “proof” is easily analogous to the Biblical record. You’re basing the existence of “witnesses” on a third-party record, and because of that record assuming the event actually took place.
But, this is a poor comparison nonetheless, as no one is trying to convince me to give up my life and put all my energy, effort, and money based on who watched the first Super Bowl.
Again with the logical fallacies. This time a red herring.

It doesn’t matter what someone is trying to convince you to do with the information. What we’re debating here is whether or not witnesses really exist. Your argument is they don’t because we don’t have any written records from them. I’ve pointed out this is false logic, and gave a contemporary example to further disprove your logic.
 
I haven’t said anything of the sort. I’ve simply pointed out that your argument is “it can’t be true because there’s no evidence it is.”
That isn’t my arguement, since my arguement is about the bigger picture as to why I should believe there were many witnesses. With the information that I have available to me, it doesn’t make sense to believe there are witnesses. Now, there might have been some other witnesses, sure, but might isn’t good enough. Might isn’t a good reason to lay down my life for.

Example:

You arrive at a friend’s house and see that their lights are off, their car isn’t in the driveway, no one answers when you ring the doorbell or call their home, and it’s 10 a.m. when they work a 9 to 5 job. The logical thought would be that no one is home. An illogical thought would be, given the circumstance, that someone is home despite all the indicators that they aren’t. The only thing that would make this illogical thought become logical, is if you have a strong reason to suggest they were indeed home, despite all the given factors.

The strong reason from the example hasn’t been provided or discovered, so with the info I have, I must go with logic and reason.
Yes, I can see a TV projection of thousands of people in a stadium. But there is no evidence those people actually are there.
This is false. There most certainly is evidence, if you were that deadset on finding it. You could look to concession stand sales, as an example, for proof that people were actually there and what you saw on tv wasn’t just a massive hologram of people.
Nor is the fact that 100,000 people are on a TV screen evidence that someone who claims they were there actually was.
This is false. You could corroborate their statements with other events that took place during the Super Bowl, that would be known only to people who were in attendance.
Your example of the TV network data as “proof” is easily analogous to the Biblical record. You’re basing the existence of “witnesses” on a third-party record, and because of that record assuming the event actually took place.
I don’t believe the Bible is presented by a third party. I am of the belief that the Bible is heavily biased with an agenda to promote, namely the spreading of Christianity. The TV network data is third party evidence and can be corroborated with other pieces of evidence to verify its claim. The same cannot be said for the Bible.
I’ve pointed out this is false logic, and gave a contemporary example to further disprove your logic.
You haven’t disproven it.
 
This is the part you seemed to skip over:

“Using what is in the Gospels themselves and what we find in extra-biblical writings from the early centuries…”

“Both the Bible (still taken as merely a historical book, not yet as an inspired one) and other ancient works attest to the fact that Christ established a Church with the rudiments of what we see in the Catholic Church today—papacy, hierarchy, priesthood, sacraments, and teaching authority.”

Both of these statements the historical accuracy of the Bible is judged by the extra-biblical sources from the same time.
No, neither of these statements is talking about the historical accuracy of the Bible. Both of them assume historical accuracy and then draw conclusions. The first one draws the conclusion that Jesus must have been either divine or a madman or a liar (an idea that had some merit in the limited context in which C. S. Lewis proposed it, to counter the silly sentimental pseudo-Christian piety of WWII-era Britain, but in that strong form doesn’t work well against thoroughgoing skeptics). The second quote, obviously, is talking about the hsitorical evidence for “the rudiments of what we see in the Catholic Church today.”

In neither of these contexts are extrabiblical sources very helpful in telling us what Jesus did. The canonical NT, with the possible addition of the Gospel of Thomas and the Didache (I don’t myself rate Thomas’ authenticity very high, but it’s the one other source that some would put on the same level as the canonical texts), is pretty much it. Citations from Ignatius and other similar figures work well in discussion with Protestants who accept the Catholic NT canon, the Incarnation, etc, because they can’t throw out the Apostolic Fathers altogether without cutting of the limb they sit on. But thoroughgoing skeptics of the tradition of Walter Bauer (like Bart Ehrman and Elaine Pagels) who talk about the diversity of early Christianity and question whether Ignatius and his Roman allies were anything but one faction within early second-century Christianity–it’s not so easy to counter them on purely historical grounds. We can show that it’s quite plausible to believe the claims of the early-second-century Catholics to be the true continuation of the faith of Jesus’ original disciples. But that’s not the same as proving that this is so. (The failure to make that distinction plagues this entire discussion.)

At any rate, I ignored the tract’s references to extrabiblical sources because it wasn’t clear that they were bearing any weight. They weren’t being used to prove the authenticity of the Biblical text–their authenticity along with that of the Biblical text was simply taken for granted, and then both kinds of sources together were appealed to to prove the divinity of Christ and the authority of the Church as something Christ established. Also, it wasn’t clear what extrabiblical sources were meant.

The fact remains that the only actual argument made in the tract for the historicity of the Biblical account appears to be the textual one.

Edwin
 
Given the above, what do you find is good evidence to think that the Bible is divinely inspired?
Specifically for the inspiration of the Bible, I am moved by the following:
  1. In the OT, the fact that ancient Hebrews responded to the Babylonian exile not by abandoning faith in YHWH but by understanding the exile as YHWH’s work and by articulating a monotheistic faith with great depth and power (see especially Isaiah 40 ff.) Of course this might just be a conquered culture desperately coming up with whatever explanation they could. But there were lots of conquered cultures in the ancient world. This one did something quite remarkable. Maybe it just happened to have some visionary geniuses. Or maybe the source of all being was actually breaking through to them in a unique way. . . .
  2. Of course, much the same is true in the NT in the way Jesus’ followers responded to Jesus’ death. Perhaps more explainable given the OT precedent. (But again, there were lots of crucified Jewish messiahs. Why did the followers of only this one, as far as we know, make such an outrageous claim?) But at the same time, the evidence for the resurrection is pretty darn strong as evidence for ancient events, not to mention supernatural events, goes. We have multiple attestation, and the fact that the first witnesses are said to have been women is strong evidence for the authenticity of the story. It doesn’t seem like a story anyone in that culture would have made up. Now this isn’t evidence for the inspiration of Scripture directly but for the resurrection. But of course the two are tied together.
  3. Historically, Scripture has functioned as the book of the Church. So just as the inspiration of Scripture can’t be discussed apart from evidence for the resurrection, so it can’t be discussed apart from the evidence for the Church. While I don’t think we can prove with certainty that the early second-century claims about early Catholic leaders being disciples of the apostles are true, these claims are fairly plausible, I think, to anyone not strongly biased toward skepticism. And more to the point, for all the evil the Church has done, it has carried a message of hope and redemption through the centuries that remains powerful and persuasive to many, including myself, today.
  4. And that brings me to the subjective “burning n the bosom” that Keating treats so scornfully in the Catholic Answers tract. I think it’s indispensable, though not sufficient. The Bible is, to put it simply, compelling. It contains a spiritual landscape in which people can spend a lifetime and feed on. It has inspired saints and poets and reformers for centuries. Sure, it may just be a cultural artifact. But the specific name that those inspired by the Bible have used to describe why it is so significant is “divine inspiration.” That is to say, those who are moved and shaped by the Bible, in ways that have powerfully shaped the world we live in, say that this moving and shaping comes not just from human sources but from God. And I find that a plausible, though not a certain claim.
Now this is only the barest outline. The real reasons for believing anything important (and for not believing it) are always far too numerous to list.

I began by saying “specifically with regard to the Bible” and then wound up talking about other things. But I’ll let that stand. One of my problems with the kind of apologetics represented in the OP is the delusion that we should first prove Scripture and then prove the resurrection as one of the things that happened in Scripture. Partly that’s just a typical non-historian’s misunderstanding of how historical evidence works. Non-historians always seem to want to establish absolutely reliable texts and then believe everything they say. That’s not how historians work. We throw out nothing but doubt everything.

Edwin
 
In neither of these contexts are extrabiblical sources very helpful in telling us what Jesus did. The canonical NT, with the possible addition of the Gospel of Thomas and the Didache (I don’t myself rate Thomas’ authenticity very high, but it’s the one other source that some would put on the same level as the canonical texts), is pretty much it. Citations from Ignatius and other similar figures work well in discussion with Protestants who accept the Catholic NT canon, the Incarnation, etc, because they can’t throw out the Apostolic Fathers altogether without cutting of the limb they sit on. But thoroughgoing skeptics of the tradition of Walter Bauer (like Bart Ehrman and Elaine Pagels) who talk about the diversity of early Christianity and question whether Ignatius and his Roman allies were anything but one faction within early second-century Christianity–it’s not so easy to counter them on purely historical grounds. We can show that it’s quite plausible to believe the claims of the early-second-century Catholics to be the true continuation of the faith of Jesus’ original disciples. But that’s not the same as proving that this is so. (The failure to make that distinction plagues this entire discussion.)
This last part is great! I agree with you that many people forget about this. We definitely shouldn’t ignore the distinction between what is plausible and what is definitively proven. After all, we know there was at least one faction in the early Church teaching heresy during the first century: the Judaizers. There are others from the 1st and 2nd century as well, and all thought they had it right.

Even among the Early Church Fathers there was disagreement on come things until a teaching was discussed in Councils and agreed upon.
At any rate, I ignored the tract’s references to extrabiblical sources because it wasn’t clear that they were bearing any weight. They weren’t being used to prove the authenticity of the Biblical text–their authenticity along with that of the Biblical text was simply taken for granted, and then both kinds of sources together were appealed to to prove the divinity of Christ and the authority of the Church as something Christ established. Also, it wasn’t clear what extrabiblical sources were meant.
The fact remains that the only actual argument made in the tract for the historicity of the Biblical account appears to be the textual one.
The underlined is where you lost me. Can you please clarify?

It seems like you’re saying because the tract doesn’t talk about efforts to prove the authenticity and accuracy (both textual and historical) of the extra-biblical sources, they aren’t being given equal, if any, weight. And because the other sources weren’t talked about in detail - names, dates, how we know they’re textually and historically accurate - the only evidence in the tract to prove inspiration is that we can be sure we’re working on an accurate text.

If I’m wrong, then please clarify for me.
 
The underlined is where you lost me. Can you please clarify?

It seems like you’re saying because the tract doesn’t talk about efforts to prove the authenticity and accuracy (both textual and historical) of the extra-biblical sources, they aren’t being given equal, if any, weight. And because the other sources weren’t talked about in detail - names, dates, how we know they’re textually and historically accurate - the only evidence in the tract to prove inspiration is that we can be sure we’re working on an accurate text.

If I’m wrong, then please clarify for me.
Sort of. All I meant was that the tract is supposed to be about how we know the Bible is inspired. Extrabiblical sources were mentioned twice (vaguely) to support claims about Jesus’ divinity and about Jesus’ establishment of something more or less like the present Catholic Church. They seemed to be thrown in there because they are part of the picture (and rightly, because they are) when the argument stood or fell on whether its claims about the reliability of Scripture were plausible. In other words, if we can’t trust Matthew, there’s probably no point arguing about Ignatius. Furthermore, even less effort was made to show the historicity of the extra-Biblical sources than to prove the tract’s claims about the historicity of the Gospels.

You were suggesting that the extrabiblical sources were appealed to as evidence for Scripture’s reliability. I didn’t see the tract arguing that at all.

It seems to me that in fact a great deal depends on whether we trust the testimony of the second-century Church. And this point works in favor of Catholics. So why adopt this strange convoluted method which depends on untenable claims about being able to prove the reliability of Scripture and looks in fact like something adapted from the Old Princeton school of Protestant theology? (That may not actually be where it came from–certainly the argument was not invented by Karl Keating, as I used to think, but is found in the Catholic Encyclopedia. But what strikes me about the argument is precisely that it doesn’t appeal to the testimony of the second-century church to support the claim that Scripture is reliable.)

Edwin
 
That isn’t my arguement, since my arguement is about the bigger picture as to why I should believe there were many witnesses. With the information that I have available to me, it doesn’t make sense to believe there are witnesses. Now, there might have been some other witnesses, sure, but might isn’t good enough. Might isn’t a good reason to lay down my life for.
Your original argument you said nothing about the big picture. It wasn’t until I challenged the argument you seemed to be making that you brought that up. Yes, the big picture changes how we react to the evidence at hand. However, your only evidence that the witness did not exist is we have no known records from those same witnesses.

In other words, there might not have been witnesses there. You find no evidence available and jump to the absolute conclusion that they don’t exist. That’s a very big leap.
You arrive at a friend’s house and see that their lights are off, their car isn’t in the driveway, no one answers when you ring the doorbell or call their home, and it’s 10 a.m. when they work a 9 to 5 job. The logical thought would be that no one is home. An illogical thought would be, given the circumstance, that someone is home despite all the indicators that they aren’t. The only thing that would make this illogical thought become logical, is if you have a strong reason to suggest they were indeed home, despite all the given factors.
The strong reason from the example hasn’t been provided or discovered, so with the info I have, I must go with logic and reason.
This is a great example, except just because the evidence suggests no one is home does not prove no one is home. The argument you were making before is that because I have no evidence the person is home, there is no possibility they are home.

I agree the logical thought would be “no one is home,” but just because that’s the logical conclusion doesn’t mean it’s the only conclusion.
This is false. There most certainly is evidence, if you were that deadset on finding it. You could look to concession stand sales, as an example, for proof that people were actually there and what you saw on tv wasn’t just a massive hologram of people.
This is false. You could corroborate their statements with other events that took place during the Super Bowl, that would be known only to people who were in attendance.
How can I conclusively prove from either of these that someone was actually at the game? Isn’t it also a possibility that someone purchased enough food/drink/souvenirs to make it appear a large crowd was at the game? Isn’t it possible for others to lie about events that took place to support someone else’s claim?

Keep in mind what I said above, just because something is a logical conclusion does not mean it always the only conclusion.
I don’t believe the Bible is presented by a third party. I am of the belief that the Bible is heavily biased with an agenda to promote, namely the spreading of Christianity. The TV network data is third party evidence and can be corroborated with other pieces of evidence to verify its claim. The same cannot be said for the Bible.
First, I did not say the Bible was written by a “third-party,” and if I accidentally inferred/implied it then I’m sorry for the confusion. What I was referring to was the Bible being a third-party in relation to the witnesses it mentions. In other words, the Bible is not the record of those witnesses. It is a separate record, probably a first-hand account, but it is not the account of the witnesses in question.

That’s how it relates to TV data. The TV data is telling us how many “witnesses” to an event the same as the Bible is.

Second, the Bible can be corroborated with other pieces of information. Archaeologists and historians continue to discover new information confirming things recorded in the Bible once believed to be myth. For example, Pontius Pilate was believed to be just a character in the fiction of the NT because we have no written records of him from Rome. But in 1961 a stone was found bearing a partial inscription dedicating it to Emperor Tiberius from Pontius Pilate.

Combined with NT and with writings from historians like Josephus, the logical conclusion is Pontius Pilate did exist and was Prefect of Judea.
You haven’t disproven it.
I’ve proven it is incorrect to conclude something did not exist because we have no evidence that it existed.

As I’ve said, maybe the witnesses existed and maybe they did not. There is no conclusive proof either way. Your logic was, “I can’t prove it therefore it doesn’t exist.” But you know what, I can’t prove either of us has a brain. I have evidence which suggests we both do, but unless we cut our heads open and look we really don’t know.

Logically, we most likely do. But just because it’s highly probable doesn’t mean the alternative is absolutely impossible. It may seem illogical and unreasonable, but that isn’t enough to conclude it’s impossible.
 
Sort of. All I meant was that the tract is supposed to be about how we know the Bible is inspired. Extrabiblical sources were mentioned twice (vaguely) to support claims about Jesus’ divinity and about Jesus’ establishment of something more or less like the present Catholic Church. They seemed to be thrown in there because they are part of the picture (and rightly, because they are) when the argument stood or fell on whether its claims about the reliability of Scripture were plausible. In other words, if we can’t trust Matthew, there’s probably no point arguing about Ignatius. Furthermore, even less effort was made to show the historicity of the extra-Biblical sources than to prove the tract’s claims about the historicity of the Gospels.

You were suggesting that the extrabiblical sources were appealed to as evidence for Scripture’s reliability. I didn’t see the tract arguing that at all.

It seems to me that in fact a great deal depends on whether we trust the testimony of the second-century Church. And this point works in favor of Catholics. So why adopt this strange convoluted method which depends on untenable claims about being able to prove the reliability of Scripture and looks in fact like something adapted from the Old Princeton school of Protestant theology? (That may not actually be where it came from–certainly the argument was not invented by Karl Keating, as I used to think, but is found in the Catholic Encyclopedia. But what strikes me about the argument is precisely that it doesn’t appeal to the testimony of the second-century church to support the claim that Scripture is reliable.)

Edwin
Good chat! Now we understand each other!

I’m only guessing, but I would say they don’t appeal to the 2nd century Church because that wouldn’t prove the historical accuracy of the events. It would only prove that what we have is what was handed on to the Church from Christ and the apostles. That doesn’t do much to prove Christ existed, and if Christ did not exist then obviously He could not be resurrected and the whole idea of inspiration/infallibility comes apart. But that’s if they only appeal to the 2nd century.

I see what you’re saying about how the other sources don’t really get much attention, but I still don’t think that’s enough to say they weren’t using them to argue the reliability of Scripture. The references weren’t very specific, but they were in very specific places where it matters that we look to something outside of Scripture to confirm what we are reading.

Having said that, I agree with you that the references could be more specific. I’m taking a leap of faith that the authors were focused more on summarizing a process very complex that most people don’t have the time to research (i.e. textual accuracy of each source including the Bible and then historical accuracy of each source, then cross-referencing sources to confirm information). But I agree it would be nice to see them at least mention a few sources by name.
 
Specifically for the inspiration of the Bible, I am moved by the following:
Moved. I appreciate that term.
  1. In the OT, the fact that ancient Hebrews responded to the Babylonian exile not by abandoning faith in YHWH but by understanding the exile as YHWH’s work and by articulating a monotheistic faith with great depth and power (see especially Isaiah 40 ff.)
And then there are the Psalms. Consider Ps 139. Here we have a man who praises God. This man is glad that God made him, and made him so wonderfully! In Ps 144, David gives credit to God for his skills, for his abilities. This isn’t a “You should thank God”, it’s actual giving thanks and credit. And similarly in many other psalms.
I find this very moving.
  1. Of course, much the same is true in the NT in the way Jesus’ followers responded to Jesus’ death.
I consider the events concerning Jesus from an entirely moral perspective, so my stance is unaffected by historical or scientific evidence or lack of thereof.
The plain, and sad, fact of the matter is that people often are willing to accept that someone would die in their stead, even if that someone be God, the one they believe to be the Almighty One. It is considering this that I find the whole of Jesus’s story to be plausible.
  1. Historically, Scripture has functioned as the book of the Church./…/ And more to the point, for all the evil the Church has done, it has carried a message of hope and redemption through the centuries that remains powerful and persuasive to many, including myself, today.
Again, my consideration is ahistoric here. It seems only reasonable that there be only one true church, and the Catholic seems to fit this description best.
  1. And that brings me to the subjective “burning n the bosom” that Keating treats so scornfully in the Catholic Answers tract. I think it’s indispensable, though not sufficient. The Bible is, to put it simply, compelling.
Absolutely. That subjective “burning in the bosom” I too consider of vital importance.

It seems that some modern apologists are too embarrassed to place much value on it, or are so vain that they want to look good and save face in the eyes of secular people, which is why those apologists downplay the role of they mystical, the “subjective,” the it-just-is.

I just read this:
thinkandmull said:
Pius X in *Pascendi *
All this, Venerable Brethren, is in formal opposition to the teachings of Our predecessor, Pius IX, where he lays it down that: “In matters of religion it is the duty of philosophy not to command but to serve, not to prescribe what is to be believed, but to embrace what is to be believed with reasonable obedience, *not to scrutinize the depths *of the mysteries of God, but to venerate them devoutly and humbly.”

The Modernists completely invert the parts, and of them may be applied the words which another of Our predecessors Gregory IX, addressed to some theologians of his time: “Some among you, puffed up like bladders with the spirit of vanity strive by profane novelties to cross the boundaries fixed by the Fathers, twisting the meaning of the sacred text…to the philosophical teaching of the rationalists, not for the profit of their hearer but to make a show of science…these men, led away by various and strange doctrines, turn the head into the tail and force the queen to serve the handmaid.”
But the specific name that those inspired by the Bible have used to describe why it is so significant is “divine inspiration.”
It’s not clear how it could be proven that the Bible is divinely inspired.
If man is a dependent, contingent being, then he cannot prove anything about that which is bigger than him, precedes him, or contextualizes him. Therefore, all efforts to prove anything about God are misguided.
Now this is only the barest outline. The real reasons for believing anything important (and for not believing it) are always far too numerous to list.
But why would one need reasons to believe something important?

Reasons or justifications for believing things are determined as valid or invalid by whoever one is trying to convince or justify oneself to.
One of my problems with the kind of apologetics represented in the OP
That kind of apologetics strikes me as entirely secular. It takes secular principles, and then presumes to build a case for the divine based on those principles.
I think this is truly pernicious. I fear people who do that and who impose such things on me. Many Catholics, and other Christians do this.
 
Moved. I appreciate that term.

I just read this:

It’s not clear how it could be proven that the Bible is divinely inspired.
If man is a dependent, contingent being, then he cannot prove anything about that which is bigger than him, precedes him, or contextualizes him. Therefore, all efforts to prove anything about God are misguided.

But why would one need reasons to believe something important?

Reasons or justifications for believing things are determined as valid or invalid by whoever one is trying to convince or justify oneself to.

That kind of apologetics strikes me as entirely secular. It takes secular principles, and then presumes to build a case for the divine based on those principles.
I think this is truly pernicious. I fear people who do that and who impose such things on me. Many Catholics, and other Christians do this.
One would be wise to seek as much truth as they can regarding beliefs which involve facts and fiction. It should be understood that God is the Author of Right reasoning, He endowed man with rational intelligence and inspired beliefs. If it can be proven that a belief is reasonable to believe from existing facts, and reason, then one becomes predisposed to accept the belief. Any effort to prove anything about God is not misguided. Some do not understand that St. Thomas synthesized the union of reason and faith. Faith is a gift given by Jesus Christ, but reason can bring you to the threshold of faith. It is grace that carries you over the threshold. Once over then things become much clearer in retrospect.
 
Moved
And then there are the Psalms. Consider Ps 139. Here we have a man who praises God. This man is glad that God made him, and made him so wonderfully! In Ps 144, David gives credit to God for his skills, for his abilities. This isn’t a “You should thank God”, it’s actual giving thanks and credit. And similarly in many other psalms.
I find this very moving.
Have you ever read Numbers, Leviticus and Deuteronomy? Most of what’s written there is nothing but the Mosaic Law, especially in Leviticus. Do you really get inspired by reading law books? If so, more power to you. But I daresay most people do not. So if I’m not “moved” by a section of Scripture, how do I know what I’m reading is Scripture?
Again, my consideration is ahistoric here. It seems only reasonable that there be only one true church, and the Catholic seems to fit this description best.
Now we’ve gone from, “you can’t prove it apart from feeling inspired” to, “we can reasonably conclude the Catholic Church is the One, True Church.”

Why do you reject reason being part of the equation for determining Scripture to be inspired, but then accept it for determining which church is the True Church?
Absolutely. That subjective “burning in the bosom” I too consider of vital importance.
And we’re back to accepting personal, subjective feelings over logic and reason?
It seems that some modern apologists are too embarrassed to place much value on it, or are so vain that they want to look good and save face in the eyes of secular people, which is why those apologists downplay the role of they mystical, the “subjective,” the it-just-is.
Be careful speaking for others, especially people you don’t know. I believe the reason many apologists place more emphasis on logic and reason is because they are trying to convince a world that rejects things it can’t arrive at without logic. As someone has already mentioned, logic/reason cannot be totally separated from faith. St. Thomas Aquinas is a Doctor of the Church for precisely this reason. He spent a lifetime studying the great philosophers (Aristotle, Socrates, Plato, etc.) and the great theologians (Augustine, John Crysostom, etc.) and unified them into a logical proof of God’s existence.

We live in a world that is becoming increasingly secular and believes religion is at odds with it. We can’t convince of the truth by appealing to our subjective feelings. We have to demonstrate Truth with the thing they hold sacred: logic.

Think about it another way: If I’m going to debate a protestant about a Catholic belief, and my goal is to convince this person of the truth of my belief, how successful will an appeal to Sacred Tradition, which he/she rejects as divine revelation, be?

Instead, I will work to show this person evidence within Sacred Scripture because he does accept that as the authoritative rule.
It’s not clear how it could be proven that the Bible is divinely inspired.
If man is a dependent, contingent being, then he cannot prove anything about that which is bigger than him, precedes him, or contextualizes him. Therefore, all efforts to prove anything about God are misguided.
God wants us to be in relationship with Him, and He tries to reveal Himself to us through the world around us. He wants us to be sure, so He gave us the ability to reason. Using that very gift He gave us, we can be reasonably sure of His existence.

Now if you want absolute, 100 percent, no doubt of any kind proof…no, that we won’t have. But we can prove beyond a reasonable doubt that God exists.
But why would one need reasons to believe something important?
Because as I’ve already stated several times in this post, we are rational creatures. Especially living in today’s world where logic is supposed to be the supreme god, it is important to have reasons for continuing to believe and to live your life by the code of that belief system.
Reasons or justifications for believing things are determined as valid or invalid by whoever one is trying to convince or justify oneself to.
Not exactly. 2+2 still equals 4 regardless of whether the other person wants to accept it.
That kind of apologetics strikes me as entirely secular. It takes secular principles, and then presumes to build a case for the divine based on those principles.
I think this is truly pernicious. I fear people who do that and who impose such things on me. Many Catholics, and other Christians do this.
Again, there is a reason apologists build their case with “secular” reasoning. We live in a world that worships logic and reason, so modern apologists are going to build a case based on those “gods” to show people there really is a God.

This is also nothing knew (again, St. Thomas Aquinas).

Logic and reason are nothing to be feared. I fear the person who’s faith ignores logic and reason, because feelings can change with the wind.
 
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