How do we know that when Jesus is called "God" in the NT it means they were calling Him the Almighty God?

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I received a post which really surprised me when this person told me that in Ps 45:6 when it says,

6 Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever;
a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom.

that this title was referred to the king of Israel (presumably David; a man). I always thought that the psalmist was talking about our Creator. But now I do see that the author was talking about David (the king).

So my question is how do we know that when Jesus was called “God” in Jn 1:1 and 20:28, it means more than the title that was given to David. Now, I know that Jesus is greater than David, but that doesnt mean that when Jesus was called “God” means that he was being called YHWH, does it (based on the above information)?

IOW, how do we know (after looking at Ps 45) that when Jesus was called “God” that they were calling Him in effect “God the Son”? If David was called “god” (with a capital G in the English translations) how do we know that when Jesus was called “God” in the NT, it is equal to meaning He is the Almighty God?

After all there was no capitalisation in the ancient writings was there?

Comments please.
 
Syele said:
Its not about David, But about Jesus.
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No, apparently it was about the marriage of an Israelite king (maybe Solomon) as well. I can quote my Jerusalem bible if you want.

Don’t you think someone would have questioned the psalmist what he meant by those words?

Addition: There is apparently another belief that the Psalm was written in relation to the marriage between the “messianic King with Israel (prefiguring the Church)”.

This leads to the question though, who at the time believed that the Messiah would be God Himself? No one probably. So the author must of felt it okay to call the Messiah, “God”, even though the anticipated Messiah was expected to be a man.
 
The Catholic Bible:

**Psalms 82 **

*1 God hath stood in the congregation of gods: and being in the midst of them he judgeth gods.

2 How long will you judge unjustly: and accept the persons of the wicked?

3 Judge for the needy and fatherless: do justice to the humble and the poor.

4 Rescue the poor; and deliver the needy out of the hand of the sinner.

5 They have not known nor understood: they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth shall be moved.

6 **I have said: You are gods **and all of you the sons of the most High.

7 But you like men shall die: and shall fall like one of the princes.

8 Arise, O God, judge thou the earth: for thou shalt inherit among all the nations.*
 
MH84 said:
No, apparently it was about the marriage of an Israelite king (maybe Solomon) as well. I can quote my Jerusalem bible if you want.

Don’t you think someone would have questioned the psalmist what he meant by those words?

Addition: There is apparently another belief that the Psalm was written in relation to the marriage between the “messianic King with Israel (prefiguring the Church)”.

This leads to the question though, who at the time believed that the Messiah would be God Himself? No one probably. So the author must of felt it okay to call the Messiah, “God”, even though the anticipated Messiah was expected to be a man.
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So you are saying the Messiah is never said to be God in the OT? Just because people didn’t understand it all doesn’t mean its not there.
 
Syele said:
So you are saying the Messiah is never said to be God in the OT? Just because people didn’t understand it all doesn’t mean its not there.
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Come on now. Please show me those verses. Btw, Is 9:5 is not that clear after looking at Ps 45:6.

No, Jew expected the Messiah to be God Incarnate I am quite sure. I could be wrong though.
 
MH84 said:
I received a post which really surprised me when this person told me that in Ps 45:6 when it says,

6 Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever;
a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom.

that this title was referred to the king of Israel (presumably David; a man). I always thought that the psalmist was talking about our Creator. But now I do see that the author was talking about David (the king).

So my question is how do we know that when Jesus was called “God” in Jn 1:1 and 20:28, it means more than the title that was given to David. Now, I know that Jesus is greater than David, but that doesnt mean that when Jesus was called “God” means that he was being called YHWH, does it (based on the above information)?

IOW, how do we know (after looking at Ps 45) that when Jesus was called “God” that they were calling Him in effect “God the Son”? If David was called “god” (with a capital G in the English translations) how do we know that when Jesus was called “God” in the NT, it is equal to meaning He is the Almighty God?

After all there was no capitalisation in the ancient writings was there?

Comments please.
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MH84 here is some commentray that may help:

A song for the Davidic king’s marriage to a foreign princess from Tyre in Phoenicia. The court poet sings (Psalm 45:2, 18) of God’s choice of the king (Psalm 45:3, 8), of his role in establishing divine rule (Psalm 45:4-8), and of his splendor as he waits for his bride (Psalm 45:9-10). The woman is to forget her own house when she becomes wife to the king (Psalm 45:11-13). Her majestic beauty today is a sign of the future prosperity of the royal house (Psalm 45:14-17). The psalm was retained in the collection when there was no reigning king, and came to be applied to the king who was to come, the messiah.
 
From St. Augustine’s Exposition on Psalm 45:

“Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever” (ver. 6). Because God has “‘blessed You’ for ever,” on account of the “grace poured over Your lips.”

Now the throne of the Jewish Kingdom was a temporal one; belonging to those who were under the Law, not to those who were under “grace:” He came to “redeem those who were under the Law,” and to place them under “Grace.” His “Throne is for ever and ever.” Why? for that first throne of the Kingdom was but a temporal one: whence then have we a “throne for ever and ever”? Because it is God’s throne. O divine Attribute of Eternity! for God could not have a temporal throne. “Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever—a sceptre of direction is the sceptre of Your Kingdom.” “The sceptre of direction” is that which directs mankind: they were before crooked, distorted; they sought to reign for themselves: they loved themselves, loved their own evil deeds: they submitted not their own will to God; but would fain have bent God’s will to conformity with their own lusts. For the sinner and the unrighteous man is generally angry with God, because it rains not! and yet would have God not be angry with himself, because he is profligate. And it is pretty much for this very reason that men daily sit, to dispute against God: "This is what He ought to have done: this He has not well done.

John Chapter 1

[1] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…

[14] And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father.
 
Enoch said:
[1] In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God…

[14] And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father.
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This is what Im wondering about. How do we know what “God” means here, when the term can be used for angels or men like in Ps 45?
 
MH84 said:
This is what Im wondering about. How do we know what “God” means here, when the term can be used for angels or men like in Ps 45?
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You know the JW’s believe that Jesus is not the one true God in the flesh and is actually a reincarnation St. Micheael the Archangel. I wonder if this is the same logic they use. Let me do some looking…

I’m not sure about you’re interpretation of Psaml 45.
 
Enoch said:
You know the JW’s believe that Jesus is not the one true God in the flesh and is actually a reincarnation St. Micheael the Archangel. I wonder if this is the same logic they use. Let me do some looking…

I’m not sure about you’re interpretation of Psaml 45.
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Well I can quote my Jerusalem bible if you want. Let me know. Don’t worry about JW’s, just answer the question at face value.

Thank you.
 
Enoch said:
You know the JW’s believe that Jesus is not the one true God in the flesh and is actually a reincarnation St. Micheael the Archangel. I wonder if this is the same logic they use. Let me do some looking…

I’m not sure about you’re interpretation of Psaml 45.
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Moses is called “god” as well in the OT. But Hebrews says that Jesus is greater than Moses.
 
When the word “God” is used with a capital “G” while not being the first word of the sentence, that would indicate “The Almighty”; but when it is used with a small “g”, the writer there is not referring to the Almighty.🙂
 
MH84 said:
Come on now. Please show me those verses. Btw, Is 9:5 is not that clear after looking at Ps 45:6.

No, Jew expected the Messiah to be God Incarnate I am quite sure. I could be wrong though.
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But they expect David to live forever, his throne never to end and him to be called God? That makes no sense. David was not God. I can see arguing that the verse refers to God the Father rather than God the Son, but David?

No throne endures forever except the Throne of God. And why would anyone refer to David as Elohim? Now THERE is something people would have been questioning!
ewtn.com|bold mine:
Aside from the prophetic types present in the Kingdom of Judah, there is also the text of Psalm 45, which when speaking of the Kingdom of God also speaks of its Queen.
[6] Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre. [7] Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. [8] All thy garments smell of myrrh, and aloes, and cassia, out of the ivory palaces, whereby they have made thee glad. [9] Kings’ daughters were among thy honourable women: upon thy right hand did stand the queen in gold of Ophir. [10] Hearken, O daughter, and consider, and incline thine ear; forget also thine own people, and thy father’s house; [11] So shall the king greatly desire thy beauty: for he is thy Lord; and worship thou him. (Psalm 45:6-11, KJV)
That Kingdom ruled by God is the same as the Kingdom ruled eternally by the Son of David. It is not an earthly kingdom, though it is present on earth in the Church, but a heavenly kingdom, the Kingdom of God. The Queen of that Kingdom is the Blessed Virgin Mary, the Mother of the Lord God Jesus Christ.
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Wesley's notes:
  1. O God - It is evident, that the speech is still continued to the same person whom he calls king, ver. 1, 11, and here God, to assure us that he doth not speak of Solomon, but a far greater king, who is not only a man, but the mighty God, Isaiah ix, 6. A right scepter - Thou rulest with exact righteousness and equity.
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agangbern said:
When the word “God” is used with a capital “G” while not being the first word of the sentence, that would indicate “The Almighty”; but when it is used with a small “g”, the writer there is not referring to the Almighty.🙂
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Please refer to Ps 45:6!

Anyway there were no capitalisations in the ancient texts were there?
 
The Bible also tells us that He and the Father are ONE. Which means you cannot distinct or separate one from the other. No one else in the Bible is talked about in this unique manner.
 
Enoch said:
The Bible also tells us that He and the Father are ONE. Which means you cannot distinct or separate one from the other. No one else in the Bible is talked about in this unique manner.
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One in what?
 
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