D
deheister
Guest
If Jesus was using hyperbole when instructing his listeners to pluck out their eyes or to cut off their hands and feet if these should cause them to sin (Mt 5:29-30, Mt 18:8-9, Mk 9:43:47 ), why wasn’t he using hyperbole when he told them to eat his flesh and drink his blood? (Jn 6:48-58)
A cynic would argue that human convenience invokes “hyperbole” when confronted with a direct command to maim oneself, but in the absence of such a humanly “high-risk” proposition, taking things literally is fine.
How do we know which way to respond to Jesus’ own words?
Where else is hyperbole used in the Gospels, so that we may learn to recognize it?
A cynic would argue that human convenience invokes “hyperbole” when confronted with a direct command to maim oneself, but in the absence of such a humanly “high-risk” proposition, taking things literally is fine.
How do we know which way to respond to Jesus’ own words?
Where else is hyperbole used in the Gospels, so that we may learn to recognize it?