T
thewanderer
Guest
And all those statements are great for a probable argument but we have not yet moved onto a probable argument, we are still looking for a necessary one.It does not read it at face value which is why I was using the early Church Fathers, Papal statements and the attitude of the Church towards Catechumens as a premise, a premise you won’t allow for whatever reason.
If this is so can you point me to the part in the Council of Carthage where the Church teaches that desire is necessary for baptism?The onus is on you to prove that it is used as an exclusive regarding desire since I have demonstrated, at least that desire is necessary for a valid baptism, an inclusive. Your mental gymnastics regarding human speech and this subject does not even merit a response since it is entirely based on subjectivity and ignoring the fact that when the Church is teaching regarding a subject, she teaches as any logical teacher does which is mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive.
Look, whether you like it or not there are times when the Church speaks about only one aspect of a thing and not about all aspects. That does not mean that the Church is wrong to do so, that is just the way humans communicate. It is the way we are designed by God to communicate. If you cannot understand/disagree with that basic point then I really don’t think a continued discussion will be fruitful, it is possible that our understanding of reality is too different to actually get to any mutual conclusion.
And again, that is fine for a probable argument, but we are not yet at the stage of looking for a probable argument.I am just reading it as the Church has read it since the patristic period, not using my own interpretation.
No you have not yet proved that necessarily and we have not moved onto probable arguments yet seeing as you have not told us that it is ok to move onto probable arguments, ie, you have not told us that you do not have any necessary arguments.I have proved that it cannot be necessarily read the way Mr. Akins read it. I’ll have to repeat myself it seems, I am not using this Chapter to prove baptism of desire wrong so stop asking for an argument that this Chapter has to be read the opposite way.
If you are not using this chapter to prove baptism of desire is wrong than why in the world didn’t you clarify this point afer my post 132 where I clearly laid out my understanding of the conversation. The reason I am looking for an argument that it must be read as inclusive rather than exclusively is because that is what our discussion was set up to be about back in post 132. Again, if you did not wish to talk about this you should have made that clear way back then. I am simply following the outline for our discussion that I laid out back in that post. We are discussing the interpretation of the passage from Trent. You put forward an interpretation (although admittedly it was an interpretation for the sake of countering Akin’s understanding) and that interpretation is what we are discussing. First any necessary arguments need to be put forward, if none exist we can move onto probable arguments, and, in particular, a discussion of what sort of probable arguments hold the most weight, and then a presentation of various probable arguments and a weighing of their respective values. Its all there, clearly laid out in post 132. I took the time to lay it out explicitlly precisely so that we could all be on the saame page and not have misunderstandings about what our discussion was about and where it was going. If there is a misunderstanding here it is most certainly not my fault.