I find it fascinating that many Catholics feel so confident in their acceptance of a supposed infallible authority
Why would it be surprising that we take Jesus at His Word?
We don’t consider His promises “supposed” but absolutly real.
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(btw how could one even prove that in any sense without using private judgement and private interpretation).
You mean, prove that Jesus meant what He said?
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May I ask Catholics online how they came to the decision that they will submit to Rome as their infallible authority?
Jesus is the Head of the Church. The HS is the Soul of the Church. The divine elements of the Church prevent her from falling into error.
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What thought processes did you use? Was it an act of faith? Did you prove to yourself that Rome was the infallible authority? Did you do this apart from private judgement and interpretation?
I read the Holy Scriptures, and decided to believe what is written
Yes, it was an act of faith.
I do not think that the revelaiton of God is subject to human science, so no, I did not set about to “prove” anything.
I don’t think that an act of faith can be done apart from involving my personal judgement and interpretation, but it was subjected to the once for all Divine Deposit of Faith that God gave to the Church.
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Have any Catholics on the forum considered that perhaps they rely on a circular argument: “I know the Catholic church is the one true infallible church because the infallible Pope of Rome tells me so?”.
Yes, of course. However, since this does not happen, it is no concern of mine.
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Here is another one: “I know the Bishop of Rome is infallible because the Church tells me he is and the Church is infallible because the infallible Pope tells me so.”
If this were the case, you are right, it would be circular.
I am just posing these questions because many Catholics just love to go after Protestants concerning Sola Scriptura (in fact what they really are debating against but don’t realize it is Solo Scriptura, not Sola Scriptura)
Well, I debate against both.
One heresy is as good as another!
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and they like to bring up private judgement and interpretation and it seems they have the same essential problem but won’t admit it.
If the Church were nothing more than the Body of Believers on earth, then this would be true. But, since we don’t subscribe to this deficient and truncated definition, we don’t suffer from the same problem.
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When we quote Scripture against the Roman Church we’re taking for granted our competence to interpret Scripture aright quite apart from the Magisterium.
I think this is very true, except that the Catholic Church is not “Roman”.
(i) Even if this represented a genuine problem, and even if there were such a thing as the Magisterium,
Do you honestly believe that Jesus did not leave a teaching authority in place?
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appealing to that office only relocates the original problem, for unless the laity are competent to interpret magisterial teachings, they cannot comply with them.
Actually, this is not true. One can obey, without fully comprehending. Peter did not know why Jesus wanted him to thow the net on the other side of the boat, but he did it anyway.
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Whatever complications are involved in exegetical and systematic theology are dwarfed by the scope of canon law.
These are apples and oranges. Canon lawa does not relate to exegesis or theology. Canon law governs the behavior of those under the shepherding of the Church.
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To plow through the Fathers, Doctors, Councils and Popes, reading them against a historical backdrop (minutes, correspondence, &c.), producing critical editions (textual criticism), collating the material and sifting it all according to degrees of normativity—is quite beyond the resources of a full time research scholar or professional theologian—much less a busy bishop or his parish priest.
You are quite right, which is why we have a Catechism.
Even if the Pope were ordinarily immunized from doctrinal error in his public teaching, that instruction must still be popularized at the seminary and parish level.
What does it mean to be “ordinarily immunized”? It seems that the writer has a wrong understanding of the gift of infallibility.
Besides, the gift does not apply to those who depart from it. If the Truth is not taught at the seminary and parish level, then they will fall into error.
So it still amounts to a trickle down process, with the mass inculcation and application delegated to an army of fallible foot-soldiers.
Sadly so, but the foot soldiers also have access to the documents, and the mandate to study to show themselves approved.
Do you think this is different than what happened in the early church?
The gift of infalllibility would not be needed if the foot soldiers were not fallible.
