There can be disagreement as to what the early writings show about the early church. You are also assuming a definition of Church which requires that it subsist in one organization.
Christ founded only one Church. This fuzzy definition of Church which consists of a group of believers is an invention that came 1500 years after Christ.
If we go back to Scripture and the early Christian writings, it is clear that they mean one visible Church.
You are again assuming that since the Bible is accurate in somethings that it is accurate in all things. This is something that must be proved, not assumed, if your argument is to be accepted.
That is an argument that an atheist can make. Not those who claim to be Christians. For once you contest this, then this discussion ends right now for this premise becomes circular reasoning. The only way it avoids circular reasoning is when Christian accept the inerrancy of the Bible.
Also, even if the early church resembled the Catholic Church in some ways, you are assuming that this means that the Catholic Church is the one He founded.
Wrong word to use. Not resemble but IS. And this is not an assumption we make but something that even a cursory glance at history will prove.
However the Orthodox Church could also be said to resemble the Church Jesus founded.
Because it is part of the Church that Christ founded on earth. They have valid apostolic succession.
Your reasoning would not allow us to determine which of these bodies is the Church Jesus founded.
Perhaps not but history does allow for us to determine which one. But that is not the subject of this thread.
So, if you claim that the Orthodox Church DOES resemble the Church that Christ founded on earth and we grant you that it is, then how come you are not Orthodox?
I assume you are Protestant. Since you yourself have allowed for these two choices why are you not in either one?
At this point you appear to be going completely in circles. You are assuming the very thing that you are attempting to prove. You are saying that we can take the Catholic Church’s word that the Bible is inspired because the Church is infallible.
Actually, it is the other way around and as I have explained to Andrew we can only have a meaningful discussion of this with a Christian for we have a common ground to work from.
If we accept that the Bible is inspired (which every Christian, I assume, does) then we can proceed from there and ask how can we be sure it is inspired if the authority that wrote and canonized this book is not infallible.
Without accepting the infallibility of the Catholic Church, then we cannot accept the inerrancy of the Bible.
Unfortunately for you (and fortunately for us), the inerrancy of the Bible and the inifallibility of the Church is tied up together.
Without an infallible Church we cannot say that the Bible is inerrant. Without an inerrant Bible we are all delusional and might as well be atheists like Dawkins.
No where in your argument have you proven that, even if the Catholic Church is the only church that can claim Jesus as its founder, that this makes it infallible.
If Randy hasn’t then I say read history. Even secular history attests to this.
And since we can prove this historically, if we accept the Bible then we can be sure that it is infallible precisely because according to the Bible, Christ said He will send His Church to guide her into all truth.
The truth of this assumption is still dependent on the interpretting of Scripture to mean that the Catholic Church is infallible.
Nope. The truth of this “assumption” rest on both sides’s acceptance of the inerrancy of the Bible and following that to its logical conclusions.