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Pallas_Athene
Guest
I do not reject the answers a-priori. If and when a rational answer is presented, I am happy to embrace it.If one rejects answers given by others, why ask the question?![]()
Are you getting that from this: âThe primary and formal object of the Divine Cognition is God Himself. (Scientia contemplationis)ââŚ? If so, youâre over-reaching; this line does not assert anything about the entirety of Godâs knowledge, as you seem to be implying here.
You havenât successfully made the case that #2 must be discarded. If God knows everything that happens in the universe â and His knowledge is timeless, since He is eternal and outside of the temporal framework â then how does that part of His knowledge that proceeds from His act of creation present a logical problem? After all, itâs not like He has to âwaitâ in order for our actions to âhappenâ, before He knows what the actions will be. But, Iâm guessing that temporal sequencing isnât your problem here, right? Itâs strictly a matter of causation. The only thing I can imagine is that youâre presuming that the only source of Godâs knowledge is Divine Cognition.![]()
Sorry, you both overlooked the dogma, which says: âGodâs knowledge is independent of extra-divine thingsâ. But this should be obvious, IF you accept that God is âsimpleâ, his knowledge cannot be separated from his âessenceâ. If Godâs knowledge would be dependent upon any âextra-divineâ thing, then he would be contingent upon extra-divine things, and thus he would not be sovereign.My understanding (which could be wrong) is that Godâs âknowledge of visionâ is precisely the knowledge that comes from observing the actions of free creatures, albeit from a timeless perspective. Thatâs why itâs called that. So the premise that God cannot have (some) knowledge thatâs dependent on the actions of creatures is false.
If you think about it, that only makes sense. If God had never created the universe, He would not have that knowledge, since itâs specifically the knowledge of what actually does happen. So that knowledge cannot be of the same inherent, independent kind as His knowledge of Himself or of all possible things. It is, if nothing else, dependent on His own free decision to create.
So, yes, the #2 possibility IS successfully discarded based upon the dogmas. Is there any other explanation?
(By the way, you guys