How does one know that the Bible is inerrant?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Daniel_Marsh
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
40.png
Maranatha:
I respectfully disagree. I have heard many arguments that try to raise objections which are not based on the supernatural content of the Gospels. These objects all have highly reasonable answers.
We both belong to large clubs here…
I disagree again. Supernatural events, like the resurrection or the event at Fatima, are historical. History and faith are not in conflict.
No, they aren’t in conflict - they have nothing to do with each other. How can the resurrection possibly be considered historical? There were no witnesses, no evidence… and there aren’t even any “resurrection” stories in the bible! There are empty tomb stories and it certainly doesn’t take a resurrection to create an empty tomb. And there are appearance stories - a wide range of inconsistent and conflicting stories which appear only in the gospels of believers and which could be interpreted to mean almost anything.

Reports of supernatural events may be history but I respectfully just can’t imagine how one can consider the events themselves to be part of history. It seems to me that there is a lack of faith when one tries to do that.
 
40.png
Richard_Hurtz:
IgnatiusOfAntioch:
Actually, the Hebrews did have exactly the same way of guarantying correct interpretation. The Sanhedrin, which had teaching and interpretation Authority roughly parallel with the Magisterial
Really, at what point (date) did the “Sanhedrin” “define” the OT Canon?
That wasn’t your original question. The question I was answering was:
40.png
Richard_Hurtz:
The OT Jews recognized Scripture without the benefit of the Church. They also recognized the “inerrancy” of Scripture without the benefit of the Church.**
The OT Hebrews had the Senhedrin which had the Authority (sometimes called the Moses seat) to determine correct interpretation of the Scripture.

The issue of canonicity of the scriptures never arose in the OT.
 
40.png
Richard_Hurtz:
…If the OT “Church” was “THE Church” how do you explain Israel’s repeated apostasies?
The same way the repeated apostasies occur today in the NT indefectable Church… sin.
Where is the indefectablility of the “OT Church”?
It subsisted in the OT Church prior to the advent of Christ, and subsists today in the Catholic Church.
How do you explain 2 Kings 22 in light of this claim?
What needs to be explained?
Where is the OT Church’s guardianship of the Word of God?
It subsisted in the OT Church prior to the advent of Christ, and subsists today in the Catholic Church.
 
Daniel Marsh:
Brother Dave, you are confusing infalliblity and inerrancy.
I’m not. I’m just saying that some Protestants claim Biblical “infallibility,” whatever that means. I understand the Bible to be inerrant.

I think your original question was answered a long time ago by St. Augustine… “*** I should not believe the gospel except as moved by the authority of the Catholic Church.***” (St. Augustine, Against the Epistle of Manichaeus called Fundamental, ch. 5).
 
40.png
itsjustdave1988:
What needs to be explained?
What needs to be explained is how, if the OT “Magesterium” provided the definition of the OT canon as has been alleged on this thread, could it lose the Word of God?

Furthermore, where is the evidence to back up the claim that Israel was even given a Magesterium?

Peace to you,
Richard
 
40.png
Richard_Hurtz:
What needs to be explained is how, if the OT “Magesterium” provided the definition of the OT canon as has been alleged on this thread, could it lose the Word of God?

Furthermore, where is the evidence to back up the claim that Israel was even given a Magesterium?

Peace to you,
Richard
Let me clarify… my comment to you pertained not to the proposition that the OT Church was infallible, but that they were in fact authoritative. Thus, Jesus exhorted his disciples to submit to their teachings, but not to do as they did, as they were hypocrites. Thus the people of God in the OT were not just left to their own private lights, but were given a Church that taught authoritatively in accord with Divine direction.

I did not nor do I now allege that the OT Church in any way shape or form provided the defintion of the OT canon, infallibly or otherwise before the advent of Christianity. In fact, it is clear from even Jewish scholars that this was NOT decided in the first century. For example, the Sadducees only held to the first 5 books of Scriptures, the Pharisees held to these and others in addition to the authority of tradition, the Essenes even differed from these two.

In the 2nd century AD, Jewish scholars were still debating what they considered were the books that “soiled the hands.” The Ethiopian Jews used the Septuagint+, and as I understand it, still do today. Of course by this time, they no longer had the Divine authority to decide anything for the People of God.

Thus, the authoritative (yet not infallible) OT Church did guide the people to what was and was not the authentic Word of God, but there lacked consensus even up to the 2nd century AD.

The only infallible canon of Scripture is that canonized in the 4th century AD by the Catholic Church, and affirmed by the Council of Florence, and affirmed and immutably defined dogmatically by the Council of Trent.
 
40.png
patg:
… How can the resurrection possibly be considered historical? There were no witnesses, no evidence… and there aren’t even any “resurrection” stories in the bible! There are empty tomb stories and it certainly doesn’t take a resurrection to create an empty tomb. And there are appearance stories - a wide range of inconsistent and conflicting stories which appear only in the gospels of believers and which could be interpreted to mean almost anything.

Reports of supernatural events may be history but I respectfully just can’t imagine how one can consider the events themselves to be part of history. It seems to me that there is a lack of faith when one tries to do that.
This is ridiculous. If someone dies in front of witnesses, but then later is seen alive, that’s historical evidence. You may not trust the eyewitness testimony, but that’s your problem.

Your thesis that this is not history is laughable. According to this thesis, Socrates’ existence is not historical, because all we have are “appearance stories” about him. The moon landing was not historical, as all we have are “stories” which may have easily been faked. :rolleyes:
 
40.png
Ignatius:
The OT Hebrews had the Senhedrin which had the Authority (sometimes called the Moses seat) to determine correct interpretation of the Scripture.
First of all, the Sanhedrin was not an ecclesial body, but a judicial and legislative body made up of experts in the Torah.

Secondly, where was the Sanhendrin’s interpretive ability vis a vis the arrival of the Messiah?

Peace to you,
Richard
 
40.png
itsjustdave1988:
This is ridiculous. If someone dies in front of witnesses, but then later is seen alive, that’s historical evidence. You may not trust the eyewitness testimony, but that’s your problem.

Your thesis that this is not history is laughable. According to this thesis, Socrates’ existence is not historical, because all we have are “appearance stories” about him. The moon landing was not historical, as all we have are “stories” which may have easily been faked. :rolleyes:
patg,

I have to agree with Dave.

Reviewing the historical facts around the resurrection from am objective view is not a betrayal of faith.
 
40.png
Richard_Hurtz:
First of all, the Sanhedrin was not an ecclesial body, but a judicial and legislative body made up of experts in the Torah.
The magisterium fills those roles now. I don’t see your objection.
Secondly, where was the Sanhendrin’s interpretive ability vis a vis the arrival of the Messiah?
As Dave pointed out, they were authoritative not infallible. As we reviewed earlier, they already lost the Urim and Thurim. Note, the Holy Spirit did not come down until the pentecost after the resurrection.
 
40.png
Maranatha:
As Dave pointed out, they were authoritative not infallible.
Interesting. So you admit the possibility that authority can exist without infallibility?

This is noteworthy because frequently Catholic apologists will try to claim that the Church can’t possibly be authoritative if it is not infallible. Obviously the fact that authority can exist without infallibility doesn’t prove that the NT Church is authoritative but not infallible. But it precludes any a priori rejection of the possibility as incoherent or impracticable.

Edwin
 
40.png
Contarini:
Interesting. So you admit the possibility that authority can exist without infallibility?
Of course!!! My lawful pastor has authority over me, as does my Bishop, neither of which has the gift of infallibility individually speaking. The Bible itself tells us to “obey our leaders” (Heb 13:17). It does not say “… but only if they are infallible.”

The Church of England, for example, had lawful superiors to which they, unfortunately, were not obedient to. Thus, the Anglican rebellion. Instead of following Heb 13:17, they chose otherwise, more along the lines of Korah’s rebellion (cf. Num 16, Jude 11).
Obviously the fact that authority can exist without infallibility doesn’t prove that the NT Church is authoritative but not infallible.
Correct.
But it precludes any a priori rejection of the possibility as incoherent or impracticable.
By a priori, if you mean what it means literally in Latin “from the former” then we do reject that thesis. A priori means that a proposition is “derived by reasoning from self-evident propositions.” We do in fact reject the possibility that the gift of infallibility was not from the very 1st century a gift exercised in Christ’s Holy Church by the lawful pastors of the Church. It is derived by reasoning from the deposit of faith once and for all traditioned to the holy ones. In that sense, it was “from the former.”
 
40.png
Maranatha:
Edwin, Michael, et al.

Please read and comment on the full article Evidence for the Resurrection of Christ

We believe Christ’s resurrection can be proved with at least as much certainty as any universally believed and well-documented event in ancient history. To prove this, we do not need to presuppose anything controversial (e.g. that miracles happen). But the skeptic must also not presuppose anything (e.g. that they do not). We do not need to presuppose that the New Testament is infallible, or divinely inspired or even true. We do not need to presuppose that there really was an empty tomb or post-resurrection appearances, as recorded. We need to presuppose only two things, both of which are hard data, empirical data, which no one denies: The existence of the New Testament texts as we have them, and the existence (but not necessarily the truth) of the Christian religion as we find it today.

I find the notion that the Resurrection of Christ can be investigated in that way indescribably distasteful - ISTM to be a form of “testing God”.​

It is the kind of thing which it is completely inappropriate even to try to prove - that sort of approach is analogous to testing a Host by chemical analysis to see whether it is really what Christian belief claims it is. I don’t want, or need, proof - I want to have faith. If I could know from historical evidence that Christ is risen, I would not need faith. And what I would be believing, would not be the Resurrection.

It is a Christ-centred thing, not just any old thing - so it cannot be rightly perceived except by faith: which is entirely the gift of God. The Resurrection is an unique event, and an event of an unique type: so there are no analogies for it, no means of attaining to it - or to knowledge of it - by historical evidence. The closest we have to historical evidence for it, is this:
  • it is known to have been believed to have happened
  • there are myths about dying and rising gods
But those things cannot prove that it really happened, and that it happened within history. The Resurrection did more than happen, not less - it is as unique and powerful as the creating act of God “in the beginning”. It transcends history, it contains it as well as being contained by it.

If the Resurrection could be proved, it would not be worth believing. It is credible, not because it can be proved, but (almost) because it cannot be proved. Trying to prove it only degrades it by making it, as far as possible, purely this-worldly. And it cannot be proved, because it is a reality wholly different from historical events. The only way I can put what I’m trying to say, is to say that it is “as though” the timeless Life of God were to be transposed into time and space. Elements in the Resurrection accounts are historical - but the Resurrection of Christ, Which is the Reality which makes those elements historical, is too huge, too living, too wonderful, too creative, too dynamic, to be a “merely” historical event. It is far too heavy for a very small thing like history to contain. It cannot be recognised for what it is by historical evidence - so arguments based on that can show that it was believed to be a reality; but not that it happened.

One might as well use historical evidence to prove that someone is a Saint - one could show that someone was thought to be, but the only proof of any value would be meeting the person in question: and that would make proof from historical evidence needless. One who encounters the Risen Christ needs no evidence - let alone proof - for the Resurrection; the Apostles did not. Christ Risen & Glorified is the proof. In matters which are historical, conclusions by argument and evidence are wholly proper & legitimate & necessary: but not in what can - for us - be known only by faith. And it is what the Resurrection is, not how we come to know it, that decides that. It is far closer to being a person than an event, because Jesus Christ is both. ##
 
Gottle of Geer said:
## I find the notion that the Resurrection of Christ can be investigated in that way indescribably distasteful - ISTM to be a form of “testing God”.

It is the kind of thing which it is completely inappropriate even to try to prove - that sort of approach is analogous to testing a Host by chemical analysis to see whether it is really what Christian belief claims it is. I don’t want, or need, proof - I want to have faith. If I could know from historical evidence that Christ is risen, I would not need faith. And what I would be believing, would not be the Resurrection.

It is a Christ-centred thing, not just any old thing - so it cannot be rightly perceived except by faith: which is entirely the gift of God. The Resurrection is an unique event, and an event of an unique type: so there are no analogies for it, no means of attaining to it - or to knowledge of it - by historical evidence.

(snip - too long to re-post all)

Yes! I agree with much of what you have said.

Perhaps you were misconstruing the goals of an historical analysis. The analysis is not meant to completely reveal the entirety of truth but can be used to establish the authority of the teachings safeguarded by our Mother Church.

As Pope John Paul the Great said in FIDES ET RATIO:
  1. At the First Vatican Council, the Fathers had stressed the supernatural character of God’s Revelation. On the basis of mistaken and very widespread assertions, the rationalist critique of the time attacked faith and denied the possibility of any knowledge which was not the fruit of reason’s natural capacities. This obliged the Council to reaffirm emphatically that there exists a knowledge which is peculiar to faith, surpassing the knowledge proper to human reason, which nevertheless by its nature can discover the Creator.
He also goes on to explain that investigation of history is not profane to the understanding of the fullness of faith.
  1. God’s Revelation is therefore immersed in time and history. Jesus Christ took flesh in the “fullness of time” (*Gal *4:4); and two thousand years later, I feel bound to restate forcefully that “in Christianity time has a fundamental importance”.(9) It is within time that the whole work of creation and salvation comes to light; and it emerges clearly above all that, with the Incarnation of the Son of God, our life is even now a foretaste of the fulfilment of time which is to come (cf. *Heb *1:2)…
  2. History therefore becomes the arena where we see what God does for humanity. God comes to us in the things we know best and can verify most easily, the things of our everyday life, apart from which we cannot understand ourselves.
In the Incarnation of the Son of God we see forged the enduring and definitive synthesis which the human mind of itself could not even have imagined: the Eternal enters time, the Whole lies hidden in the part, God takes on a human face…

It is truly a beautify encyclical and deserved to be read in it entirety.
 
Gottle of Geer:
  • there are myths about dying and rising gods
I have to agree with G.K. Chesterton in The Everlasting Man (Chapter 5: Man and Mythologies) when he said (paraphrasing), throughout history the wise men of each society created Myths. The knowledgeable people of these societies never took these stories to be literally true. They were a poetic way of attempting to reach the truths of existence through fiction.

He acknowledged that historically, there have been thousands and perhaps tens of thousands of myths created. He also acknowledged that some of these myths have similarities to the Gospel accounts. With such a large number of myths it would be more remarkable if some of these did not have similarities with the Gospels.

He concluded that you can’t make a valid comparison between Christianity and of myths because Christianity is rooted in history.
 
40.png
itsjustdave1988:
This is ridiculous. If someone dies in front of witnesses, but then later is seen alive, that’s historical evidence. You may not trust the eyewitness testimony, but that’s your problem.
That’s ridiculous - inconsistent stories about alleged witnesses written long after the event by extremely biased authors cannot be considered as history - at least not by someone who is not extremely biased themselves. Throwing the word “eyewitness” around as if it were an established fact is also ridiculous.
Your thesis that this is not history is laughable. According to this thesis, Socrates’ existence is not historical, because all we have are “appearance stories” about him. The moon landing was not historical, as all we have are “stories” which may have easily been faked. :rolleyes:
That is laughable - we have thousands of active particpants in historical events such as the moon landing or World War II or the holocaust, many still alive. We have documentation and evidence accepted as historical based on the rigor required by historians. We don’t even look at historicity the same as people in the time of the gospel authors did.

I understand that you really want to believe in the resurrection - I do too. But trying to prove it historically is trying to put the understanding of a non-worldly event into a worldly system which doesn’t and can’t support it. Dead bodies don’t recusitate and it requires pure faith to believe that it happened 2000 years ago and that the “eyewitnesses” were describing that actuality.
 
40.png
Maranatha:
The magisterium fills those roles now. I don’t see your objection.
The Magesterium fulfills no such legislative role except possibly in matters pertaining to CANON LAW. The Sanhedrin, although headed up by the High Priest, decided matters of LAW not doctrine (faith and morals). You’re grasping at straws.
40.png
Maranatha:
As Dave pointed out, they were authoritative not infallible. As we reviewed earlier, they already lost the Urim and Thurim. Note, the Holy Spirit did not come down until the pentecost after the resurrection.
I grant that they were authoritative in matters of interpreting the LAW (i.e. as the Supreme Court is in the U.S.). If you want to assert an ecclesial function analogous to the RCC’s Magesterium, please provide documentation.

Thanks and God Bless,
Richard
 
40.png
patg:
That’s ridiculous - inconsistent stories about alleged witnesses written long after the event by extremely biased authors cannot be considered as history - at least not by someone who is not extremely biased themselves. Throwing the word “eyewitness” around as if it were an established fact is also ridiculous.

That is laughable - we have thousands of active particpants in historical events such as the moon landing or World War II or the holocaust, many still alive. We have documentation and evidence accepted as historical based on the rigor required by historians. We don’t even look at historicity the same as people in the time of the gospel authors did.

I understand that you really want to believe in the resurrection - I do too. But trying to prove it historically is trying to put the understanding of a non-worldly event into a worldly system which doesn’t and can’t support it. Dead bodies don’t recusitate and it requires pure faith to believe that it happened 2000 years ago and that the “eyewitnesses” were describing that actuality.
I said nothing about proving it historically. I said it was history. You don’t even seem to understand the meaning of the word “history.” It is derived from the Latin *historia, *from Greek, inquiry, history, from *histOr, istOr *knowing, learned; akin to Greek *eidenai *to know. It means, according to Merriam-Webster:
history: tale, story, a chronological record of significant events (as affecting a nation or institution) often including an explanation of their causes, a branch of knowledge that records and explains past events, events of the past
There are many things in history books, taught as hisotry that we don’t have proof other than what has been recorded as a “tale, story, records of past events.” Those records are either trustworthy or they are not, but they are still the evidence of history and historians teach from that evidence, the subject of History.

For example, the knowledge of Socrates and his writing comes indirectly from certain dialogues of his disciple Plato. By your logic, anything we know about Socrates is not “history.” Yet, by Merriam-Webster’s definition of the word, and the actual inclusion of Plato’s accounts of Socrates in history books, it clearly does constitute history. Gotta go with Webster and actual historians on this, as you seem quite clueless as to what “history” is.

Another example, from the Jewish Historian, Flavius Josephus (AD 37-100), excerpted from his 20-volume historical text, *Jewish Antiquities, *which is a history of the Jews up until their war with Rome:
“About this time lived Jesus, a man full of wisdom, if indeed one may call Him a man. For He was the doer of incredible things, and the teacher of such as gladly received the truth. He thus attracted to Himself many Jews and many of the Gentiles. He was the Christ. On the accusation of the leading men of our people, Pilate condemned Him to death upon the cross; nevertheless those who had previously loved Him still remained faithful to Him.*** For on the third day He again appeared to them living, just as, in addition to a thousand other marvelous things, prophets sent by God had foretold.*** And to the present day the race of those who call themselves Christians after Him has not ceased.” (Book 18, Ch 3)
Is Josephus’ work not a history text of a Jew from the first century? Historians seems to think so and they cite him on many number of things pertaining to Jewish History.

You may not like what he recorded as it might not sit well with your “Jesus Seminar” viewpoint, but to discount say that this is not a historical account is absurd. You’d be more convincing if you simply told us you don’t believe the historical account by this 1st century Jew or the eyewitnesses who wrote about Jesus in the Bible. That would make much sense coming from you. But to expect us to believe you have any credibility to tell us what is and is not history is ridiculous.
 
40.png
itsjustdave1988:
Let me clarify… my comment to you pertained not to the proposition that the OT Church was infallible, but that they were in fact authoritative. Thus, Jesus exhorted his disciples to submit to their teachings, but not to do as they did, as they were hypocrites. Thus the people of God in the OT were not just left to their own private lights, but were given a Church that taught authoritatively in accord with Divine direction.

I did not nor do I now allege that the OT Church in any way shape or form provided the defintion of the OT canon, infallibly or otherwise before the advent of Christianity. In fact, it is clear from even Jewish scholars that this was NOT decided in the first century. For example, the Sadducees only held to the first 5 books of Scriptures, the Pharisees held to these and others in addition to the authority of tradition, the Essenes even differed from these two.

In the 2nd century AD, Jewish scholars were still debating what they considered were the books that “soiled the hands.” The Ethiopian Jews used the Septuagint+, and as I understand it, still do today. Of course by this time, they no longer had the Divine authority to decide anything for the People of God.

Thus, the authoritative (yet not infallible) OT Church did guide the people to what was and was not the authentic Word of God, but there lacked consensus even up to the 2nd century AD.

The only infallible canon of Scripture is that canonized in the 4th century AD by the Catholic Church, and affirmed by the Council of Florence, and affirmed and immutably defined dogmatically by the Council of Trent.
Let’s see what we have so far:
  1. A fallible yet authoritative OT magesterium.
  2. Though fallible and hypocritical still taught with “Divine direction”.
  3. Though fallible, Jesus had no problem with their teaching, just their actions.
  4. This authoritative body could not discern nor define Scripture, was fallible, was hypocritical yet could still “guide Israel”.
Pardon my saying so, but you’ve just undercut the “necessity” for an Infallible Magesterium.

Be that as it may, let’s take it another step; “How did the OT believer apprehend the fact that he should be in obedience to the Sanhedrin or OT teaching authority?”

Peace to you,
Richard
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top