How does one reconcile the different lists of Scripture in the various Orthodox Churches?

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Andrew1983

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Hi, it’s been a long time since I’ve posted on these forums, but I have a question that in all honesty, I’m unclear on and it involves the understanding of what constitutes as Scripture, Canon, and how the differences of lists that our brethren in the Eastern Orthodox Churches use can be reconciled with what we use in the Roman Catholic Church (I’m under the assumption that the Eastern Rite Catholic Churches have retained their lists).

Specifically, we in the Roman Church recognize an authoritative list of 73 books and also have the Prayer of Menassah, 3 and 4 Esdras as Apocrypha.

Some Orthodox Churches recognize 3 and 4 Maccabees in their lists. I understand that traditionally, these books have been omitted from our Bible, and at least in the case of 4th Maccabees, it is not part of the Old Testament as it was written 10 years after Christ was crucified and resurrected from the dead. (I’m not sure when 3 Maccabees was recorded).

Another example of a book not in Roman Bibles is listed among the Copts which is 1 Enoch.

Now, to the best of my current knowledge, all Orthodox Churches have valid apostolic succession and can render the sacraments, so this isn’t like our separated brethren in the Protestant ecclesial communities who loosely can be seen as Roman laity who are in rebellion against Church authority. Since this is the case, how do we reconcile the Orthodox lists with books of the Roman list?

Which then leads to my next question. Are all scriptures Canonical, or is there a distinction?
To my understanding, canon used to mean those scriptures that were read during Liturgy. Now though, Canon seems to be equated to those scriptures that are authoritatively binding on the laity and used to establish Church Doctrine.

Lastly, are there any documents or Church Fathers that have had to write on this matter? I’ve been attempting to go through the Ante-Nicene Fathers, and do not recall any books outside of the Roman lists being referenced.

Thanks in advanced and my apologies if this has already been addressed.
 
I don’t think we have to reconcile them. Canon means we use them as our standard. There were a lot of lists and suggestions as the Bishops discussed this over the decades. Many wanted to include Saint Clement’s writings, as I understand it. There’s nothing at all wrong with those writings and they could be in the Canon, but I was told they decided to cut the Canon off in terms of NT writings of the first generation Apostles.

So others decided differently. Doesn’t mean any of it has anything wrong with it, though.
 
This is strictly my personal observation…

The canon of 73 books was determined around 400 AD give or take…The Eastern Churches continued to use a somewhat larger canon.
The Great Schism did not occur for another 600 years…
Which says to me that the matter of the specific canon was not considered a big issue in the Church. Certainly not enough to cause any serious problem.

I believe that this is because up until the 1500’s there was simply no question that it was The Church that interpreted Scripture and between the many writings - both the canonical and extracanonical - and the works of many Church Fathers and the study of Tradition by the Church leadership - and most importantly the Guidance of the Holy Spirit…The Church provides proper guidance.

So - in regards to what is binding on us as lay people…Best to stick with ANY bible that has the imprimatur and like wise any concordances and such…look for the imprimatur.

Not sure if this helps any but…

Peace
James
 
I read about this subject about 6 weeks ago. **The upshot was that the canon meant which books could be used in Christian worship. ** I cannot reconcile that with my previous recollection that the canon had to do with answering emporer Constantine’s question about which writings were the ‘correct’ ones.

the fact is, this question was still bothersome, enough so that it was answered again at the council of Trent.

but,answered it was, and there you have it
 
Thanks to those who replied. I’m still not sure how to go about this entirely. I am curious about the answers mainly due to apologetics against Protestants who point out the various canons of the Eastern and Oriental Churches. If am to understand correctly though, their argument would be rendered null and void since most Protestant communities are technically made up of Roman Catholic laity in open defiance against the Roman Church’s authority whereas the various Eastern Churches have valid sources of authority since they are not just communities founded by laypersons.
 
Well I’m not sure what arguments you are trying to refute…
A couple of points I have made with protestants in this regard…
  1. When Paul says “All Scripture is God Breathed” ( a common verse among SS folks) he is most likely referring to a larger OT canon than the Protestants accept.
  2. The variation in the Canon was not seen as sufficiently problematic to cause a rift in the Church since these variations existed from 400 onwards and the Great Schism did not occur until after 1000 AD.
  3. The reason that this was not seen as a problem was because the Ancient Church (which became the RC and EO) BOTH held to an authoritative Church model (as called out in the NT Scripture). SS and a smaller canon are both novel innovations.
Peace
James
 
Thanks to those who replied. I’m still not sure how to go about this entirely. I am curious about the answers mainly due to apologetics against Protestants who point out the various canons of the Eastern and Oriental Churches. If am to understand correctly though, their argument would be rendered null and void since most Protestant communities are technically made up of Roman Catholic laity in open defiance against the Roman Church’s authority whereas the various Eastern Churches have valid sources of authority since they are not just communities founded by laypersons.
I have heard it explained this way…go back to one of the original reason why the Bible canon was was finalized in the first place…to have a common set of readings for the Mass…prior the a canon…there was widespread opinion among bishops of what was to be read during the Liturgy.

The East (those who have a different canon…mainly concerns the OT)… based on their tradition of what was read during their Divine Liturgy…retained those additional books that were read traditionally.

Moreover…the Bible canon is not a source of conflict with Orthodox…as the Bible was never intended to replace the authority of the bishops…in both east and west…the bishops are the authority…not the Bible. It was never intended to be a source, or the source of doctrines…which is what protestants have generally made of the Bible…a source of conflict.
 
Well I’m not sure what arguments you are trying to refute…
A couple of points I have made with protestants in this regard…
  1. When Paul says “All Scripture is God Breathed” ( a common verse among SS folks) he is most likely referring to a larger OT canon than the Protestants accept.
  2. The variation in the Canon was not seen as sufficiently problematic to cause a rift in the Church since these variations existed from 400 onwards and the Great Schism did not occur until after 1000 AD.
**3) The reason that this was not seen as a problem was because the Ancient Church (which became the RC and EO) BOTH held to an authoritative Church model (as called out in the NT Scripture). SS and a smaller canon are both novel innovations. **Peace
James
What James wrote in #3 is right on…also based on what I heard has been explained about the different canon.
 
Well I’m not sure what arguments you are trying to refute…
A couple of points I have made with protestants in this regard…
  1. When Paul says “All Scripture is God Breathed” ( a common verse among SS folks) he is most likely referring to a larger OT canon than the Protestants accept.
  2. The variation in the Canon was not seen as sufficiently problematic to cause a rift in the Church since these variations existed from 400 onwards and the Great Schism did not occur until after 1000 AD.
  3. The reason that this was not seen as a problem was because the Ancient Church (which became the RC and EO) BOTH held to an authoritative Church model (as called out in the NT Scripture). SS and a smaller canon are both novel innovations.
Peace
James
To add another point in this…The Canon of Scripture that we (the RC) use was determined among the Bishops of the Church in council and reaffirmed in subsequent councils. This is in accordance with the model contained in Scripture (See Acts 15).
Ask your protestant friend to show you the council (among protestants) where the smaller canon was determined and approved. There was none.
So - How can he (as a Sola Scripturist) accept a Bible canon that was arrived at in a non-biblical fashion?
It has always fascinated me - this idea that the SS person holds - that the Bible is the complete and unalterable word of God and yet the first thing the reformers did was to alter it. 🤷

Also - to ad a bit to my point one above.
Paul wrote the words “All Scripture is God breathed” to Timothy…a Bishop in charge of a community of largely Greek speaking believers. These Greek speaking believers, in order to “search the Scriptures” (something Paul commends the Bereans for) would most likely be searching the Greek language OT - the Septuagint.

Peace
James
 
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