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Daniel_Lysinger
Guest
“Baptism washes away all, absolutely all, our sins, whether of deed, word, or thought, whether sins original or added, whether knowingly or unknowingly contracted” -St. Augustine, A.D. 420
Catholic doctrine clearly states that Original Sin is on everyone’s soul at birth. The results of having this on your soul is you do not have the benefit of Sanctifying Grace, essentially dooming you to eternal damnation if you do not rectify the situation. The reasons they posit for the reasonableness of the transmission of this sin are many, including considering it as a “disease that spreads down through the generations,” or simply a state of necessity because of the transgression of the “head” of the human race, namely Adam. I prefer the latter explanation simply because physically comparing sin to a disease seems to me to be a bit lacking in the concept of sin (which is willfully choosing a lesser good over a greater). However, if you have a better explanation please tell me.
On to the main question – how does it work? I mean, it is true that the state of Adam’s soul after he committed the sin was passed down. It is also true that no means for getting rid of the mark of Original Sin existed before the sacrament of Baptism was initiated. So, why doesn’t the state of the parent’s soul (assuming that the parent has had a legitimate Baptism) pass on to the child? If the undoings of one parent can pass on, why can’t the benefits of another get passed down? It is impossible from a reasonable point of view to argue that babies in the womb choose to sin Adam’s sin, and therefore the results of the sin are simply passed down regardless. But if that is the case, wouldn’t it also be reasonable for the good deeds of more recent parents to be transmitted? If it is simply a matter of who your parents are, why should each individual have to “start all over again” in redeeming himself from a parent’s sin regardless of any other person in the family tree (say if the grandfather and the dad got baptized)…
It just seems logically incoherent. Please enlighten me.
Catholic doctrine clearly states that Original Sin is on everyone’s soul at birth. The results of having this on your soul is you do not have the benefit of Sanctifying Grace, essentially dooming you to eternal damnation if you do not rectify the situation. The reasons they posit for the reasonableness of the transmission of this sin are many, including considering it as a “disease that spreads down through the generations,” or simply a state of necessity because of the transgression of the “head” of the human race, namely Adam. I prefer the latter explanation simply because physically comparing sin to a disease seems to me to be a bit lacking in the concept of sin (which is willfully choosing a lesser good over a greater). However, if you have a better explanation please tell me.
On to the main question – how does it work? I mean, it is true that the state of Adam’s soul after he committed the sin was passed down. It is also true that no means for getting rid of the mark of Original Sin existed before the sacrament of Baptism was initiated. So, why doesn’t the state of the parent’s soul (assuming that the parent has had a legitimate Baptism) pass on to the child? If the undoings of one parent can pass on, why can’t the benefits of another get passed down? It is impossible from a reasonable point of view to argue that babies in the womb choose to sin Adam’s sin, and therefore the results of the sin are simply passed down regardless. But if that is the case, wouldn’t it also be reasonable for the good deeds of more recent parents to be transmitted? If it is simply a matter of who your parents are, why should each individual have to “start all over again” in redeeming himself from a parent’s sin regardless of any other person in the family tree (say if the grandfather and the dad got baptized)…
It just seems logically incoherent. Please enlighten me.